Mental and Behavioral Health Nursing (NUR2459): NUR 2459 Exam 2 Review Guide: Questions & Answers | Latest Fall 2026 - Rasmussen.

Mental and Behavioral Health Nursing (NUR2459): NUR 2459 Exam 2 Review Guide: Questions & Answers | Latest Fall 2026 - Rasmussen. Exam 2 — Mental and Behavioral Health Nursing (NUR2459) A nurse is caring for a client with delirium who is experiencing illusions. What environmental conditions should the nurse arrange for the client? A. A dimly lit room to promote rest and sleep B. A well-lit room without glares or shadows with minimal noise C. A television on a low volume to provide a distraction D. A room with bright, fluctuating lights to maintain orientation A client with schizophrenia has begun a new prescription of clozapine. Which laboratory study should the nurse monitor for adverse effects? A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) B. White blood count C. Hemoglobin A1c D. Platelet count What are the hallmark symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)? A. Muscle rigidity and hyperpyrexia B. Hypotension and bradycardia C. Urinary retention and dry mouth D. Respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils A client is admitted for alcohol intoxication. Family reports he is a heavy drinker with previous admissions for detoxification. When should the nurse expect to observe the first symptoms of withdrawal? A. Within 12 hours B. 72 hours C. 1 week after the last drink D. 24 hours after admission A 76-year-old client diagnosed with major depressive disorder expresses hopelessness and dependence on family. What is the most critical question for the nurse to ask? A. “Who is your support system other than your family?” B. “Do you know others that are in a similar situation?” C. “Are you currently having thoughts that life is not worth living?” D. “Can you make changes that would change how you feel?” The nurse is teaching a group regarding naltrexone for alcoholism. What should be included about the drug's effectiveness? A. It provides a permanent cure for alcohol addiction B. It causes severe nausea if alcohol is consumed C. It reduces the craving for alcohol D. It treats the symptoms of depression and anxiety A client with schizophrenia believes the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) is hunting him to destroy him. This is an example of what type of delusion? A. Delusion of grandeur B. Delusion of persecution C. Delusion of influence D. Somatic delusion The nurse is admitting a client with schizophreniform disorder. What should the nurse expect to find? A. Symptoms that have lasted for more than two years B. Hallucinations and delusions for less than six months C. A complete absence of psychotic symptoms D. Mood swings as the primary clinical feature Which individual is considered at the highest risk for suicide? A. A 30-year-old married female with a supportive family B. A 70-year-old white male, Methodist, low socioeconomic group with metastatic cancer C. A 20-year-old college student with high self-esteem D. A 45-year-old professional female with no history of mental illness A client is experiencing delusions of influence. How is this delusion expressed? A. “I am the secret President of the United States.” B. “A new tooth filling is controlling my thoughts.” C. “The trees are whispering my name in the wind.” D. “I can heal anyone just by looking at them.” Which symptom differentiates a neurocognitive disorder (NCD) from delirium? A. Delirium develops slowly over several years B. NCD involves a rapid change in consciousness C. Delirium develops rapidly whereas symptoms of NCD develop more slowly D. NCD is always caused by a systemic infection A confused elderly client with no history of dementia is hospitalized for an acute urinary tract infection. What is the most appropriate nursing statement? A. “You are experiencing early stages of Alzheimer's disease.” B. “Your memory loss will likely be permanent after this.” C. “Things may be upsetting and confusing right now, but your confusion should clear as you get better.” D. “You should ask your family to help you make all your decisions.” Benztropine is ordered as needed for a client taking haloperidol. Which assessment finding indicates a need for this medication? A. The client has a sudden increase in appetite B. The client has an elevated blood glucose level C. The client has extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) D. The client is experiencing sedation A nurse is admitting a client with a dual diagnosis of major depressive disorder and alcoholism. What is the primary intervention? A. Encourage the client to attend a group therapy session B. Place the client on continuous observation C. Administer an antidepressant medication immediately D. Teach the client about the long-term effects of alcohol What instruction is correct when teaching a client about electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? A. You will be fully awake and alert during the procedure B. You may experience recent memory loss after the treatment C. This treatment will permanently cure your depression D. You must avoid all food and water for 48 hours after the procedure Which nursing entry accurately describes a client's use of confabulation? A. Refuses to speak to the nurse or staff members B. Verbalizes happiness about a trip to the park which was not based in fact C. Repeats the same word over and over during the interview D. Expresses suspicion that the food is being poisoned Which population is at the highest risk of developing tardive dyskinesia? A. Clients taking SSRIs for a short period B. Clients who have received long-term neuroleptic treatment C. Clients who have never taken psychiatric medications D. Clients with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder An elderly client gives the admissions person their glasses when asked for identification. This is an example of which symptom? A. Aphasia B. Agnosia C. Apraxia D. Amnesia What teaching must be provided to a 29-year-old female prescribed valproic acid for bipolar disorder? A. You should increase your caffeine intake to stay alert B. Ensure you are using a form of birth control when sexually active C. This medication will take effect within 30 minutes D. You do not need any follow-up blood work for this medication A suicidal client begins to respond to antidepressants, with improved appetite and sleep. What is the most important intervention? A. Discontinue suicidal risk assessments B. Continued vigilance regarding the client's suicidal precautions C. Encourage the client to take a weekend pass home D. Allow the client to have private time in their room A manic client has rapid pressured speech and flight of ideas. What is the nurse's best response? A. “Please sit down and be quiet while I finish my charting.” B. “I am going to call the doctor to get you a sedative.” C. “I'm having a hard time following your train of thought.” D. “Why are you talking so fast right now?” The nurse is caring for a client in the prodromal phase of schizophrenia. What behaviors are expected? A. A decline in level of functioning B. Active, vivid hallucinations and delusions C. A complete return to normal baseline functioning D. Intense focus on professional and social success A client is prescribed phenelzine. Which food items must be avoided on a tyramine-free diet? Select all that apply. A. Pepperoni and cheese pizza B. Smoked turkey and beans C. Fresh apples and oranges D. Banana and iced coffee What intervention is important for a client with poor self-esteem? A. Assigning complex tasks to challenge them B. Providing activities that can be accomplished C. Criticizing their performance to encourage improvement D. Allowing them to stay in bed all day to avoid failure What are the symptoms of opioid intoxication? Select all that apply. A. Pinpoint pupils B. Disorientation C. Tachycardia and hypertension D. Hypervigilance and agitation When assessing a patient's plan of suicide, what aspect has priority? A. The client's age and gender B. The client's insight into suicidal motivation C. The client's religious background D. The client's previous employment history A client states they no longer need medication because they don't hear voices. What is a therapeutic response? A. “You are right; if the voices are gone, you are cured.” B. “What happened last time you stopped taking your medication?” C. “You must take it because the doctor ordered it.” D. “I will let the doctor know you are ready for discharge.” A client taking imipramine for depression should be taught to: A. Limit fluid intake to 500 mL per day B. Rise slowly when changing from lying to sitting to standing C. Expect the medication to work fully within 24 hours D. Take the medication only when feeling depressed What is a priority intervention for a client experiencing auditory hallucinations? A. Argue with the client that the voices aren't real B. Let the client know you do not hear the voices C. Leave the client alone to talk to the voices D. Ask the voices to speak louder so you can hear them A client has a diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder. What symptoms should the nurse expect? A. Only symptoms of memory loss and confusion B. Delusional thinking and mood changes C. Physical symptoms with no known medical cause D. High levels of anxiety and panic attacks What is the primary manifestation of premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)? A. Anxiety B. Increased energy and euphoria C. Significant weight loss D. Auditory hallucinations What physiological changes are found in the brain of a client with Alzheimer's disease? A. Brain enlargement and increased neuron growth B. Overabundance of plaques, tangles, and brain atrophy C. Increased levels of dopamine in the prefrontal cortex D. Decreased levels of amyloid protein A client is being discharged with a prescription for lithium. What information should be included in teaching? A. Stop taking the medication once your mood is stable B. Follow a low-sodium diet to prevent toxicity C. Routine blood work, follow a strict sodium diet, and drink adequate fluids D. Limit your fluid intake to avoid diluting the medication A client is hospitalized for a suicide attempt after a breakup and says, “Next time I'll get it right.” What is the best nursing response? A. “I'm sure you will feel better tomorrow.” B. “What exactly do you plan to do?” C. “You shouldn't say things like that.” D. “Why do you think the breakup happened?” A client in delirium states, “I see headless people walking down the hall.” What is the most appropriate response? A. “There are no headless people here; you are just dreaming.” B. “I see them too; let's go hide.” C. “It must be frightening. I realize this is real to you, but I do not see headless people.” D. “You are just seeing the shadows of the other nurses.” A client shows symptoms of alcohol intoxication. What question should the nurse ask first? A. “Why do you drink so much?” B. “What time was your last drink?” C. “Do you have a family history of alcoholism?” D. “How do you feel about being in treatment?” Which item selection on a sample lunch menu for a client on an MAOI indicates a need for further education? A. Fresh grilled chicken and steamed broccoli B. Lunch meat deli sandwich C. A green salad with oil and vinegar D. Baked potato with butter Which substance is likely to cause tachycardia, hypertension, restlessness, and agitation? A. An opioid like meperidine B. A stimulant like cocaine C. Alcohol D. A benzodiazepine like lorazepam A client with MDD hears voices commanding self-harm and refuses to commit to a safety plan. What is the priority intervention? A. Completing a room search for harmful objects B. Encouraging the client to attend a social skills group C. Discussing the client's childhood trauma D. Administering a PRN sleeping medication What is a SMART short-term goal for a client with Alzheimer’s who has lost 5 pounds? A. The client will gain 10 pounds by next week B. The client will eat 25% of each meal for the next 24 hours C. The client will eat higher caloric meals every day D. The client will increase oral intake at every meal A client with bipolar disorder asks if they must keep taking lithium even though their mood is stable. What is the best response? A. “You can stop taking it once you feel better for one month.” B. “Taking the medication every day helps prevent relapse and recurrence.” C. “You only need to take it when you feel a manic episode starting.” D. “We will switch you to a different medication next week.” A client with delirium yells, “I have to leave and get to my barber!” What is the most therapeutic response? A. “Your barber is closed today anyway.” B. “You can go see your barber tomorrow morning.” C. “You are in the hospital and I'm your nurse.” D. “Why do you need a haircut so badly?” What is the most therapeutic approach for a female client with delusions of grandeur who is highly suspicious? A. Recognize her feelings and assure her she is safe B. Challenge her delusions with logical facts C. Use an approving communication technique for her ideas D. Tell her that her suspicions are completely unfounded Which medication increases the risk for serotonin syndrome when taken with certain over-the-counter drugs? A. Haloperidol B. Sertraline C. Clozapine D. Lithium Which activity should be included in the plan of care for a client experiencing a manic episode? A. A highly competitive basketball game B. Encourage participation in a bingo game C. A 2-hour long silent meditation session D. Leading a complex group discussion on philosophy A manic client is rushing about and talking rapidly with flight of ideas. What is the therapeutic intervention? A. Speak slowly and in a quiet voice to help the client focus B. Tell the client to stop talking immediately C. Encourage the client to talk faster to release energy D. Ignore the behavior until the client calms down A client on lithium for long-term maintenance shows understanding of the medication by stating: A. “I can stop taking this if I get a fever.” B. “I need to be aware of situations that may cause dehydration.” C. “I should avoid all salt in my diet.” D. “I only need to have my blood checked once a year.” A client experiences abdominal pain, diarrhea, sweating, fever, and tachycardia after switching medications. The nurse recognizes this as: A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome B. Serotonin syndrome C. Alcohol withdrawal delirium D. Lithium toxicity A client is increasingly agitated, pacing, and shouting at others. What is the priority nursing action? A. Call the client's family to come and help B. Ensure safety in the environment for the client and others C. Offer the client a snack to distract them D. Ask the client to explain why they are angry How does cognitive behavior therapy (CBT) help alleviate depressive thoughts? A. It uses electrical currents to stimulate the brain B. It helps you learn to think more positively and thereby reduces depressive thoughts C. It focuses on medication compliance only D. It involves long-term analysis of childhood dreams Which finding indicates a client with schizophrenia is NOT tolerating the stimulation on the unit? A. Increased appetite at mealtime B. Using confabulation when asked a question C. Participating in a structured art project D. Sleeping 8 hours through the night What is an essential teaching point for a client starting lamotrigine? A. You will need to eat more fermented foods B. If you experience a rash, you should notify your physician C. This medication will cause immediate weight loss D. You must avoid sunlight while taking this drug Which statement indicates a lack of understanding of antipsychotic medications? A. “These medications may cause weight gain.” B. “One day I won't have to take these medications.” C. “My symptoms may return if I don't take them.” D. “These drugs may cause negative side effects.” A client's son is 13 and the client says he has never seen his father drunk. What is the nurse's best response regarding family therapy? A. “I'm sure your son knows you're an alcoholic.” B. “It is important that all family members who would be impacted are present.” C. “You know your son has seen you drinking.” D. “It is good that you have these concerns for your son.” The daughter of a client with Stage 7 Alzheimer's says, “No one told me my dad would be unable to talk to me.” What should the nurse include in the response? A. Communication decreases as the disease progresses B. He is just choosing not to speak today C. His speech will return if he starts new medication D. This only happens in the early stages of the disease Regarding the negative symptoms of schizophrenia, what should the nurse teach the family? A. These symptoms are under the control of the client B. These symptoms should not be confused for laziness C. These symptoms resolve within 3 to 6 months D. Negative symptoms reflect an excess of normal functioning What is the most accurate description of the detoxification process for alprazolam? A. The reduction process is very short B. Reduction is not necessary C. Gradual downward tapering of this drug is necessary D. It depends only on the frequency of usage What is a potential cause of delirium? A. Healthy lifestyle and exercise B. Systemic infections or electrolyte imbalance C. Long-term genetic predisposition D. Natural aging process Which stage of Alzheimer's disease is associated with “sundowning”? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 6 D. Stage 4 What are amyloid plaques in Alzheimer's disease made of? A. Tau protein B. Amyloid protein C. Dopamine D. Serotonin Donepezil (Aricept) is used to treat which stages of Alzheimer's disease? A. Only the severe stage B. Only the mild stage C. All stages D. Only the moderate stage What is the specific medication used to treat an opioid overdose? A. Methadone B. Naloxone C. Diazepam D. Lithium What are the signs of sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic intoxication? A. Slurred speech and unsteady gait B. Increased heart rate and hypervigilance C. Pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression D. Excessive energy and euphoria The initial phase of stimulant withdrawal, often called “crashing,” is characterized by: A. Depression and lethargy B. Intense euphoria and elation C. Increased appetite and hyperactivity D. Extreme focus and productivity Alcohol withdrawal delirium (DTs) is a medical emergency that can occur within: A. The first 10 minutes B. The first 72 hours C. 2 weeks after the last drink D. Only after 1 month of abstinence What is the purpose of the CAGE questionnaire? A. To diagnose schizophrenia B. To determine how clients view their substance usage C. To measure the severity of depression D. To assess for tardive dyskinesia In the premorbid phase of schizophrenia, the individual is often: A. Highly social and outgoing B. Shy, withdrawn, and having poor relationships C. Experiencing active hallucinations D. Showing significant improvement in functioning Persistent depressive disorder (Dysthymia) is a chronically depressed mood for most of the day, more days than not, for at least: A. 2 weeks B. 6 months C. 2 years D. 5 years What is the therapeutic serum concentration range for lithium during maintenance therapy? A. 1.0–1.5 mEq/L B. 0.6–1.2 mEq/L C. 1.5–2.0 mEq/L D. Above 3.5 mEq/L What symptoms are expected at a lithium serum level of 1.5–2.0 mEq/L? A. Increased energy and improved mood B. Blurred vision, ataxia, and tinnitus C. Excessive output of dilute urine D. Seizures and coma Which of the following is a symptom of TCA (Tricyclic Antidepressant) side effects? A. Dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation B. Diarrhea and excessive salivation C. Low blood pressure and bradycardia D. Improved visual acuity What food is considered “safe” (low tyramine) for a client on an MAOI? A. Pepperoni B. Fresh chicken C. Aged cheese D. Smoked fish In Alzheimer's disease, tangles are formed from which cellular protein? A. Amyloid B. Tau protein C. Myelin D. Hemoglobin The “SAFE-T” tool is used for which assessment? A. Screening for suicidal ideation/intent B. Screening for substance abuse C. Screening for cognitive decline D. Screening for medication side effects What is the primary goal during the acute phase of depression treatment (6–12 weeks)? A. Prevention of future depressive episodes B. Reduction of depression manifestations and safety C. Prevention of relapse D. Returning to full-time employment immediately