NR 341 Exam QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified
Solutions | Updated Per Latest
Guidelines | Graded A+.
1. A patient with septic shock receives 2 L of normal saline intravenously.
The central venous pressure is 10 mm Hg and the blood pressure is 82/40
mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
A) Dopamine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Epinephrine
D) Dobutamine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor for septic shock
when fluid resuscitation fails to restore blood pressure. It causes
vasoconstriction and increases mean arterial pressure. Dopamine is a
second-line agent; epinephrine and dobutamine are not the first choice
in this scenario .
, 2. What are the normal values for central venous pressure (CVP)?
A) 0-4 mm Hg
B) 2-6 mm Hg
C) 4-12 mm Hg
D) 8-15 mm Hg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Normal CVP ranges from 4-12 mm Hg. CVP reflects right atrial
pressure and is used to assess fluid volume status. Values below 4 mm Hg
suggest hypovolemia, while values above 12 mm Hg indicate fluid
overload or right-sided heart failure .
3. Which hemodynamic parameter reflects left ventricular preload?
A) Central venous pressure (CVP)
, B) Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)
C) Cardiac output (CO)
D) Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PAWP (also called pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
reflects left ventricular end-diastolic pressure and serves as an indicator
of left ventricular preload. CVP reflects right ventricular preload .
4. A patient with dilated cardiomyopathy has new-onset atrial fibrillation
that has been unresponsive to drug therapy for several days. What topic
should the nurse include in patient teaching?
A) Anticoagulant therapy
B) Permanent pacemakers
C) Emergency cardioversion
D) IV adenosine
,
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patients with atrial fibrillation lasting more than 48 hours are
at significant risk for thrombus formation and stroke. Anticoagulant
therapy is essential to prevent thromboembolic events .
5. A patient in cardiogenic shock is receiving dobutamine. What is the
primary action of this medication?
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Positive inotropic effect with mild vasodilation
C) Increased heart rate only
D) Decreased cardiac contractility
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dobutamine is a beta-1 agonist that increases cardiac
contractility (positive inotropic effect) while causing mild vasodilation. It
is used to improve cardiac output in cardiogenic shock by increasing
stroke volume without significantly increasing heart rate or afterload .
ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified
Solutions | Updated Per Latest
Guidelines | Graded A+.
1. A patient with septic shock receives 2 L of normal saline intravenously.
The central venous pressure is 10 mm Hg and the blood pressure is 82/40
mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
A) Dopamine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Epinephrine
D) Dobutamine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor for septic shock
when fluid resuscitation fails to restore blood pressure. It causes
vasoconstriction and increases mean arterial pressure. Dopamine is a
second-line agent; epinephrine and dobutamine are not the first choice
in this scenario .
, 2. What are the normal values for central venous pressure (CVP)?
A) 0-4 mm Hg
B) 2-6 mm Hg
C) 4-12 mm Hg
D) 8-15 mm Hg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Normal CVP ranges from 4-12 mm Hg. CVP reflects right atrial
pressure and is used to assess fluid volume status. Values below 4 mm Hg
suggest hypovolemia, while values above 12 mm Hg indicate fluid
overload or right-sided heart failure .
3. Which hemodynamic parameter reflects left ventricular preload?
A) Central venous pressure (CVP)
, B) Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)
C) Cardiac output (CO)
D) Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PAWP (also called pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
reflects left ventricular end-diastolic pressure and serves as an indicator
of left ventricular preload. CVP reflects right ventricular preload .
4. A patient with dilated cardiomyopathy has new-onset atrial fibrillation
that has been unresponsive to drug therapy for several days. What topic
should the nurse include in patient teaching?
A) Anticoagulant therapy
B) Permanent pacemakers
C) Emergency cardioversion
D) IV adenosine
,
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patients with atrial fibrillation lasting more than 48 hours are
at significant risk for thrombus formation and stroke. Anticoagulant
therapy is essential to prevent thromboembolic events .
5. A patient in cardiogenic shock is receiving dobutamine. What is the
primary action of this medication?
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Positive inotropic effect with mild vasodilation
C) Increased heart rate only
D) Decreased cardiac contractility
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dobutamine is a beta-1 agonist that increases cardiac
contractility (positive inotropic effect) while causing mild vasodilation. It
is used to improve cardiac output in cardiogenic shock by increasing
stroke volume without significantly increasing heart rate or afterload .
