NR547 WEEK 4 DIFFERENTIAL
DIAGNOSIS EXAM V1 QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
1. When conducting a suicide risk assessment using the Columbia-Suicide Severity Rating
Scale (C-SSRS), which of the following findings represents the highest immediate risk?
A. Active suicidal ideation with specific plan, intent, and access to lethal means.
B. Passive suicidal ideation with a vague plan but no access to means.
C. A history of suicidal ideation without intent or plan within the past year.
D. Occasional thoughts of death without specific self-harming intent.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: According to the C-SSRS and clinical risk assessment standards,
the presence of specific intent, a clear plan, and immediate access to means constitutes the
highest level of lethality risk requiring urgent intervention.
2. In the differential diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) vs. Persistent Depressive
Disorder (PDD) in an adult, which duration of symptoms is required for a PDD diagnosis?
A. At least 6 months
B. At least 12 months
,C. At least 24 months
D. At least 3 months
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: DSM-5-TR criteria for PDD (Dysthymia) in adults require a
depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, for at least two years (24
months).
3. A 25-year-old patient presents with symptoms of grandiosity, decreased need for sleep (3
hours), and pressurized speech lasting 5 days. There is no significant functional impairment or
hospitalization. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bipolar I Disorder, Manic Episode
B. Cyclothymic Disorder
C. Bipolar II Disorder, Hypomanic Episode
D. Schizoaffective Disorder
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Hypomanic episodes must last at least 4 consecutive days. Since
there is no marked impairment or hospitalization (which would define Mania), Bipolar II is
more appropriate.
, 4. Which screening tool is most appropriate for identifying Bipolar Spectrum Disorders in a
primary care or psychiatric intake setting?
A. PHQ-9
B. GAD-7
C. MDQ
D. CAGE-AID
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The Mood Disorder Questionnaire (MDQ) is a validated
screening tool specifically designed to identify symptoms of mania and hypomania
associated with bipolar disorder.
5. When evaluating an 8-year-old for ADHD, which of the following is a mandatory DSM-5-TR
requirement for diagnosis?
A. Symptoms must be present in two or more settings (e.g., home and school).
B. Symptoms must have been present prior to age 7.
C. Symptoms must be present only in the school environment.
D. Symptoms must be primarily related to oppositional behavior.
Answer: A
DIAGNOSIS EXAM V1 QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
1. When conducting a suicide risk assessment using the Columbia-Suicide Severity Rating
Scale (C-SSRS), which of the following findings represents the highest immediate risk?
A. Active suicidal ideation with specific plan, intent, and access to lethal means.
B. Passive suicidal ideation with a vague plan but no access to means.
C. A history of suicidal ideation without intent or plan within the past year.
D. Occasional thoughts of death without specific self-harming intent.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: According to the C-SSRS and clinical risk assessment standards,
the presence of specific intent, a clear plan, and immediate access to means constitutes the
highest level of lethality risk requiring urgent intervention.
2. In the differential diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) vs. Persistent Depressive
Disorder (PDD) in an adult, which duration of symptoms is required for a PDD diagnosis?
A. At least 6 months
B. At least 12 months
,C. At least 24 months
D. At least 3 months
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: DSM-5-TR criteria for PDD (Dysthymia) in adults require a
depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, for at least two years (24
months).
3. A 25-year-old patient presents with symptoms of grandiosity, decreased need for sleep (3
hours), and pressurized speech lasting 5 days. There is no significant functional impairment or
hospitalization. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bipolar I Disorder, Manic Episode
B. Cyclothymic Disorder
C. Bipolar II Disorder, Hypomanic Episode
D. Schizoaffective Disorder
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Hypomanic episodes must last at least 4 consecutive days. Since
there is no marked impairment or hospitalization (which would define Mania), Bipolar II is
more appropriate.
, 4. Which screening tool is most appropriate for identifying Bipolar Spectrum Disorders in a
primary care or psychiatric intake setting?
A. PHQ-9
B. GAD-7
C. MDQ
D. CAGE-AID
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The Mood Disorder Questionnaire (MDQ) is a validated
screening tool specifically designed to identify symptoms of mania and hypomania
associated with bipolar disorder.
5. When evaluating an 8-year-old for ADHD, which of the following is a mandatory DSM-5-TR
requirement for diagnosis?
A. Symptoms must be present in two or more settings (e.g., home and school).
B. Symptoms must have been present prior to age 7.
C. Symptoms must be present only in the school environment.
D. Symptoms must be primarily related to oppositional behavior.
Answer: A
