NBRC EXIT EXAMS (2 VERSIONS) | NBRC EXAM-Z, NBRC TMC
EXAM-S | NBRC TMC/CRT/RRT EXAM | 200+ ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS A+ GRADED |
GUARANTEED PASS!! | QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
Core Domains:
• Patient Assessment and Data Evaluation
• Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) Interpretation
• Oxygen Therapy and Humidity/Aerosol Therapy
• Airway Management and Bronchial Hygiene
• Mechanical Ventilation
• Cardiopulmonary Disorders and Disease Management
• Pharmacology for Respiratory Care
• Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care
• Equipment Setup, Troubleshooting, and Infection Control
• Clinical Simulation Exam (CSE) Style Scenarios
Introduction:
This comprehensive NBRC Exit Examination is designed to assess the
knowledge, clinical judgment, and critical thinking skills essential for
successful completion of the National Board for Respiratory Care (NBRC)
credentialing examinations. The assessment covers a broad spectrum of topics
including patient assessment, ABG interpretation, mechanical ventilation,
airway management, pharmacology, neonatal and pediatric care, and clinical
simulation scenarios. Candidates will encounter multiple-choice questions and
CSE-style scenarios that require application of theoretical knowledge to real-
world clinical situations. Emphasis is placed on clinical reasoning, evidence-
based practice, and patient safety. The Therapist Multiple-Choice (TMC)
Examination consists of 160 multiple-choice items (140 scored items and 20
pretest items) taken over a three-hour period. Passing the TMC Examination
at the low cut score earns the CRT credential; achieving the high cut score
earns the CRT credential and eligibility for the Clinical Simulation
Examination (CSE). Successful completion of this examination demonstrates
readiness to provide safe, effective respiratory care across diverse healthcare
settings.
,VERSION 1: NBRC EXAM-Z
1. A patient with ARDS is receiving mechanical ventilatory support. An end-
tidal CO2 monitor shows a PetCO2 of 59 torr. The therapist should:
A. Increase minute ventilation
B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
C. Recalibrate the capnography
D. Continue current therapy and ventilator settings
A. Increase minute ventilation
RATIONALE: A PetCO2 of 59 torr indicates hypercapnia. In ARDS, the most
appropriate intervention is to increase minute ventilation to reduce CO2 levels.
Obtaining an ABG would confirm the elevation but delays treatment. Recalibration
is not indicated as the first step.
2. Which of the following parameters indicates a patient is ready to wean from
mechanical ventilation?
A. A-aDO2 of 410 mm Hg
B. PEEP of 10 cm H2O
C. Pulmonary shunt of 16%
D. MIP of -18 cm H2O
C. Pulmonary shunt of 16%
RATIONALE: A pulmonary shunt of less than 20% indicates adequate gas
exchange and readiness to wean. A-aDO2 of 410 mm Hg is elevated, PEEP of 10
cm H2O may be too high, and MIP of -18 cm H2O is marginal (usually > -20 cm
H2O indicates weanability).
,3. Which of the following data is needed to calculate minute alveolar
ventilation?
A. IBW, VD/VT
B. PECO2, VT
C. RR, VT, weight in lbs
D. RSBI, VD/VT
C. RR, VT, weight in lbs
RATIONALE: Minute alveolar ventilation requires knowledge of respiratory
rate (RR), tidal volume (VT), and body weight to calculate dead space and alveolar
ventilation.
4. A respiratory therapist notes a pressure-volume loop on a patient receiving
mechanical ventilation has a pronounced beak. What strategy is useful in this
case?
A. Increasing PEEP
B. Decreasing tidal volume
C. Decreasing flow
D. Increasing flow
B. Decreasing tidal volume
RATIONALE: A pronounced beak on a pressure-volume loop indicates
overdistension. Decreasing tidal volume helps reduce the risk of ventilator-induced
lung injury.
5. A patient's sputum is purulent, green in appearance, has separated into
layers, and has a foul odor. What is the most likely cause?
A. Aspiration
B. Tuberculosis
C. Emphysema
D. Bronchiectasis
, D. Bronchiectasis
RATIONALE: Purulent, green sputum that separates into layers with a foul
odor is classic for bronchiectasis. The layered appearance results from mucus, pus,
and cellular debris.
6. A patient in the ICU complains of lightheadedness, nausea, and chest pains.
The patient is diaphoretic and has a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. What
should the RT recommend?
A. Lidocaine HCl
B. Cardioversion
C. Defibrillation
D. Epinephrine
B. Cardioversion
RATIONALE: The patient is showing signs of hemodynamic instability with
chest pain and hypotension, indicating a dysrhythmia requiring synchronized
cardioversion.
7. A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome has a vital capacity of 625 mL. An
RT should recommend which of the following be performed FIRST?
A. MIP evaluation
B. Edrophonium Chloride (Tensilon) test
C. MVV test
D. EMG and nerve conduction study
A. MIP evaluation
RATIONALE: In Guillain-Barré syndrome, a vital capacity of less than 1 L
indicates potential need for ventilatory support. MIP evaluation should be
performed first to assess respiratory muscle strength.
EXAM-S | NBRC TMC/CRT/RRT EXAM | 200+ ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS A+ GRADED |
GUARANTEED PASS!! | QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
Core Domains:
• Patient Assessment and Data Evaluation
• Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) Interpretation
• Oxygen Therapy and Humidity/Aerosol Therapy
• Airway Management and Bronchial Hygiene
• Mechanical Ventilation
• Cardiopulmonary Disorders and Disease Management
• Pharmacology for Respiratory Care
• Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care
• Equipment Setup, Troubleshooting, and Infection Control
• Clinical Simulation Exam (CSE) Style Scenarios
Introduction:
This comprehensive NBRC Exit Examination is designed to assess the
knowledge, clinical judgment, and critical thinking skills essential for
successful completion of the National Board for Respiratory Care (NBRC)
credentialing examinations. The assessment covers a broad spectrum of topics
including patient assessment, ABG interpretation, mechanical ventilation,
airway management, pharmacology, neonatal and pediatric care, and clinical
simulation scenarios. Candidates will encounter multiple-choice questions and
CSE-style scenarios that require application of theoretical knowledge to real-
world clinical situations. Emphasis is placed on clinical reasoning, evidence-
based practice, and patient safety. The Therapist Multiple-Choice (TMC)
Examination consists of 160 multiple-choice items (140 scored items and 20
pretest items) taken over a three-hour period. Passing the TMC Examination
at the low cut score earns the CRT credential; achieving the high cut score
earns the CRT credential and eligibility for the Clinical Simulation
Examination (CSE). Successful completion of this examination demonstrates
readiness to provide safe, effective respiratory care across diverse healthcare
settings.
,VERSION 1: NBRC EXAM-Z
1. A patient with ARDS is receiving mechanical ventilatory support. An end-
tidal CO2 monitor shows a PetCO2 of 59 torr. The therapist should:
A. Increase minute ventilation
B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
C. Recalibrate the capnography
D. Continue current therapy and ventilator settings
A. Increase minute ventilation
RATIONALE: A PetCO2 of 59 torr indicates hypercapnia. In ARDS, the most
appropriate intervention is to increase minute ventilation to reduce CO2 levels.
Obtaining an ABG would confirm the elevation but delays treatment. Recalibration
is not indicated as the first step.
2. Which of the following parameters indicates a patient is ready to wean from
mechanical ventilation?
A. A-aDO2 of 410 mm Hg
B. PEEP of 10 cm H2O
C. Pulmonary shunt of 16%
D. MIP of -18 cm H2O
C. Pulmonary shunt of 16%
RATIONALE: A pulmonary shunt of less than 20% indicates adequate gas
exchange and readiness to wean. A-aDO2 of 410 mm Hg is elevated, PEEP of 10
cm H2O may be too high, and MIP of -18 cm H2O is marginal (usually > -20 cm
H2O indicates weanability).
,3. Which of the following data is needed to calculate minute alveolar
ventilation?
A. IBW, VD/VT
B. PECO2, VT
C. RR, VT, weight in lbs
D. RSBI, VD/VT
C. RR, VT, weight in lbs
RATIONALE: Minute alveolar ventilation requires knowledge of respiratory
rate (RR), tidal volume (VT), and body weight to calculate dead space and alveolar
ventilation.
4. A respiratory therapist notes a pressure-volume loop on a patient receiving
mechanical ventilation has a pronounced beak. What strategy is useful in this
case?
A. Increasing PEEP
B. Decreasing tidal volume
C. Decreasing flow
D. Increasing flow
B. Decreasing tidal volume
RATIONALE: A pronounced beak on a pressure-volume loop indicates
overdistension. Decreasing tidal volume helps reduce the risk of ventilator-induced
lung injury.
5. A patient's sputum is purulent, green in appearance, has separated into
layers, and has a foul odor. What is the most likely cause?
A. Aspiration
B. Tuberculosis
C. Emphysema
D. Bronchiectasis
, D. Bronchiectasis
RATIONALE: Purulent, green sputum that separates into layers with a foul
odor is classic for bronchiectasis. The layered appearance results from mucus, pus,
and cellular debris.
6. A patient in the ICU complains of lightheadedness, nausea, and chest pains.
The patient is diaphoretic and has a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. What
should the RT recommend?
A. Lidocaine HCl
B. Cardioversion
C. Defibrillation
D. Epinephrine
B. Cardioversion
RATIONALE: The patient is showing signs of hemodynamic instability with
chest pain and hypotension, indicating a dysrhythmia requiring synchronized
cardioversion.
7. A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome has a vital capacity of 625 mL. An
RT should recommend which of the following be performed FIRST?
A. MIP evaluation
B. Edrophonium Chloride (Tensilon) test
C. MVV test
D. EMG and nerve conduction study
A. MIP evaluation
RATIONALE: In Guillain-Barré syndrome, a vital capacity of less than 1 L
indicates potential need for ventilatory support. MIP evaluation should be
performed first to assess respiratory muscle strength.
