BCOP TEST QUESTIONS LATEST
AND ANSWERS 2026 -
2027
RM is a 55 year-old female with metastatic endometriod
adenocarcinoma of the endometrium who was initially treated with
carboplatin and paclitaxel followed by a phase I clinical trial with a
novel PI3K inhibitor. She developed a new lower quadrant mass that
was biopsied and confirmed to be recurrent disease. The sample was
sent for NGS testing and found to be MSI-high. Which of the following
treatment options is the most appropriate for RM at this time?
A. Nivolumab
B. Nivolumab and ipilimumab
C. Pembrolizumab
D. Atezolizumab - ANSWERS-c
(Currently, only pembrolizumab is indicated for MSI-high non-
colorectal solid tumors. Nivolumab with or without ipilimumab is an
option for patients with MSI-high colorectal cancers following prior
therapy with fluoropyrimidine, oxaliplatin, and irinotecan. Atezolizumab
is currently not approved for any MSI-high tumors.)
END OF
PAGE
1
, BCOP TEST QUESTIONS LATEST
AND ANSWERS 2026 -
2027
OB is a 38-year-old male with metastatic soft tissue sarcoma that has
progressed on 3 prior lines of therapy A cell free DNA test is performed
and revealed a TPM3-NTRK1 fusion predicted to result in intron 7 of
TPM3 fused to intron 9 of NTRK1. The medical team is considering
starting therapy with larotrectinib. Is larotrectinib appropriate for this
patient at this time?
A. Yes, larotrectinib is appropriate
B. No, larotrectinib is only approved for pediatric sarcomas
C. No, larotrectinib is only approved for activating NTRK1 missense
mutations
D. No, because this was a cell free DNA rather than tumor based NGS
test - ANSWERS-a
(Larotrectinib would be appropriate at this time. This patient has an
activating NTRK1 fusion in a metastatic tumor that has progressed on
three prior lines of therapy. Larotrectinib is approved for use in both
pediatric and adult patients with NTRK1-3 gene fusions, consistent with
this TPM3-NTRK1 fusion. Clinically relevant missense NTRK1-3
mutations are typically described in the acquired resistance setting. Both
END OF
PAGE
2
, BCOP TEST QUESTIONS LATEST
AND ANSWERS 2026 -
2027
cell free DNA and tumor-based NGS assays are acceptable for
identifying NTRK1-3 fusions.)
JJ is a 57-year-old female who presented to the ED with 17 days of
abdominal distention and 3 days of abdominal pain. Physical exam
reveals a mass in her right lower abdomen. Lab results are notable for
Hgb 7.1 g/dl and CA-125 of 212 U/mL. Ultrasound confirmed presence
of a mass; additional imaging ruled out distant metastases. She is
clinically staged with 1B, high grade serous ovarian cancer and
underwent adequate surgical cytoreduction.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management for JJ at this
time?
a) observation
b) carboplatin/paclitaxel for 3 cycles
c) carboplatin/paclitaxel for 6 cycles
d) carboplatin/paclitaxel/bevacizumab for 6 cycles - ANSWERS-c
(high grade and serous)
END OF
PAGE
3
, BCOP TEST QUESTIONS LATEST
AND ANSWERS 2026 -
2027
SM presents for a pelvic ultrasound that confirms a left adnexa mass 3 x
2.6 x 2.3 cm; subsequent biopsies confirm high-grade serous carcinoma.
Additional staging confirms SM has clinical stage IVB (pleural effusions
and liver lesions) ovarian cancer. Upon imaging and in consultation with
surgery she is unlikely to be optimally cytoreduced.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy for SM?
a) Staging TAH/BSO --> adjuvant chemo
b) IP/IV carbo/taxol --> debulking surgery
c) Dose dense paclitaxel + carbo --> debulking surgery
d) Carbo + gemcitabine + bevacizumab - ANSWERS-c
(SM has stage IVB ovarian cancer and was unfortunately deemed to be
unlikely to attain optimal cytoreduction. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
followed by interval debulking surgery is most appropriate.)
END OF
PAGE
4
AND ANSWERS 2026 -
2027
RM is a 55 year-old female with metastatic endometriod
adenocarcinoma of the endometrium who was initially treated with
carboplatin and paclitaxel followed by a phase I clinical trial with a
novel PI3K inhibitor. She developed a new lower quadrant mass that
was biopsied and confirmed to be recurrent disease. The sample was
sent for NGS testing and found to be MSI-high. Which of the following
treatment options is the most appropriate for RM at this time?
A. Nivolumab
B. Nivolumab and ipilimumab
C. Pembrolizumab
D. Atezolizumab - ANSWERS-c
(Currently, only pembrolizumab is indicated for MSI-high non-
colorectal solid tumors. Nivolumab with or without ipilimumab is an
option for patients with MSI-high colorectal cancers following prior
therapy with fluoropyrimidine, oxaliplatin, and irinotecan. Atezolizumab
is currently not approved for any MSI-high tumors.)
END OF
PAGE
1
, BCOP TEST QUESTIONS LATEST
AND ANSWERS 2026 -
2027
OB is a 38-year-old male with metastatic soft tissue sarcoma that has
progressed on 3 prior lines of therapy A cell free DNA test is performed
and revealed a TPM3-NTRK1 fusion predicted to result in intron 7 of
TPM3 fused to intron 9 of NTRK1. The medical team is considering
starting therapy with larotrectinib. Is larotrectinib appropriate for this
patient at this time?
A. Yes, larotrectinib is appropriate
B. No, larotrectinib is only approved for pediatric sarcomas
C. No, larotrectinib is only approved for activating NTRK1 missense
mutations
D. No, because this was a cell free DNA rather than tumor based NGS
test - ANSWERS-a
(Larotrectinib would be appropriate at this time. This patient has an
activating NTRK1 fusion in a metastatic tumor that has progressed on
three prior lines of therapy. Larotrectinib is approved for use in both
pediatric and adult patients with NTRK1-3 gene fusions, consistent with
this TPM3-NTRK1 fusion. Clinically relevant missense NTRK1-3
mutations are typically described in the acquired resistance setting. Both
END OF
PAGE
2
, BCOP TEST QUESTIONS LATEST
AND ANSWERS 2026 -
2027
cell free DNA and tumor-based NGS assays are acceptable for
identifying NTRK1-3 fusions.)
JJ is a 57-year-old female who presented to the ED with 17 days of
abdominal distention and 3 days of abdominal pain. Physical exam
reveals a mass in her right lower abdomen. Lab results are notable for
Hgb 7.1 g/dl and CA-125 of 212 U/mL. Ultrasound confirmed presence
of a mass; additional imaging ruled out distant metastases. She is
clinically staged with 1B, high grade serous ovarian cancer and
underwent adequate surgical cytoreduction.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management for JJ at this
time?
a) observation
b) carboplatin/paclitaxel for 3 cycles
c) carboplatin/paclitaxel for 6 cycles
d) carboplatin/paclitaxel/bevacizumab for 6 cycles - ANSWERS-c
(high grade and serous)
END OF
PAGE
3
, BCOP TEST QUESTIONS LATEST
AND ANSWERS 2026 -
2027
SM presents for a pelvic ultrasound that confirms a left adnexa mass 3 x
2.6 x 2.3 cm; subsequent biopsies confirm high-grade serous carcinoma.
Additional staging confirms SM has clinical stage IVB (pleural effusions
and liver lesions) ovarian cancer. Upon imaging and in consultation with
surgery she is unlikely to be optimally cytoreduced.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy for SM?
a) Staging TAH/BSO --> adjuvant chemo
b) IP/IV carbo/taxol --> debulking surgery
c) Dose dense paclitaxel + carbo --> debulking surgery
d) Carbo + gemcitabine + bevacizumab - ANSWERS-c
(SM has stage IVB ovarian cancer and was unfortunately deemed to be
unlikely to attain optimal cytoreduction. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
followed by interval debulking surgery is most appropriate.)
END OF
PAGE
4
