Dermatology PANCE Questions 2026 Update – High-Yield Physician
Assistant Board Review, Clinical Vignettes, Answers & Explanations
Introduction
Dermatology is a high-yield component of PANCE preparation, with the
current NCCPA blueprint allocating 4% of the examination to the
Dermatologic System. This 2026-focused question set provides clinical
practice across common and important dermatologic disorders,
emphasizing recognition, diagnosis, differential diagnosis, treatment,
and patient management. Use the questions to strengthen clinical
reasoning and identify areas requiring additional review before the
PANCE.
Question and answer
Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) has activity against Pasteurella multocida which is the causative
agent in the majority of cat bite infections.
Which of the following is considered a risk factor for the development of malignant melanoma?
A male gender
B inability to tan
C Japanese ethnicity
D brown-haired individuals - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√B
Inability to tan and propensity to burn are risk factors for developing malignant melanoma.
As a general rule, sutures in the face should be removed in
A 2 days
,B 5 days
C 7 days
D 10 days - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√B
Sutures of the face should be removed in 3-5 days in order to allow for adequate healing and to limit the
amount of scarring.
A mother brings a 3 month-old infant to the office because she is concerned about a red, vascular,
nodular growth on the child's back. It appears to be enlarging slightly and the vessels are slightly dilated.
It seems to cause the child no discomfort. The most likely diagnosis is
A a hemangioma.
B a pigmented nevus.
C a salmon patch (stork bite).
D a malignant melanoma - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√A
A hemangioma is a bright red to deep purple vascular nodule or plaque that often develops at birth, may
enlarge, and may regress and disappear with aging.
Erythema nodosum is characterized by
A subcutaneous red tender nodules.
B brown pigmentation on the lower extremities.
C tender lymph nodes in the groin.
D scaling red macules. - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√A
Erythema nodosum produces erythematous red tender nodules, especially on the shins.
Which of the following mediators is responsible for initiating the urticaric response?
A Cyclic AMP
B Prostaglandins
C Prednisone
,D IgE - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√D
IgE triggers the release of histamine from mast cells that leads to urticaria.
A 45 year-old female presents to the emergency department with generalized, hot, erythema of the skin.
Physical exam reveals an oral temperature of 102 degrees Fahrenheit, purulent conjunctivitis, and
mucosal erosions. Her skin is painful and separates from the dermis with touch. Which of the following is
the most likely cause for this condition?
A Ampicillin
B Prednisolone
C Aspirin
D Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√A
Question 16 Explanation: Medications are most frequently implicated in toxic epidermal necrolysis. These
usually include, analgesics (NSAIDs), antibiotics (Ampicillin) and anticonvulsants (Carbamazepine).
A patient presents with loss of pigmentation on the back of hands, face, and body folds due to the
absence of epidermal melanocytes. There has been improvement with PUVA treatment. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A Pityriasis alba
B Tinea versicolor
C Vitiligo
D Melasma - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√C
Vitiligo is the acquired loss of pigmentation due to the absence of epidermal melanocytes presenting on
the back of hands, face, or body folds.
A 26 year-old female presents with several pruritic lesions on her dorsal forearms. The lesions are
erythematous with vesicles, with a few beginning to weep. She works in a photography laboratory, but
denies any other possible exposures. Which of the following is the most useful diagnostic test?
A VDRL serology
B KOH prep
, C Patch testing
D Gram's stain - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√C
Patch testing with a suspected agent is usually positive in cases of allergic contact dermatitis.
A positive Wood's light examination (fluorescence) demonstrates
A viral infection with herpes zoster.
B bacterial infection with Treponema pallidum.
C parasitic infestation with Pediculus humanus.
D mycotic infection with Microsporum canis. - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√D
Microsporum causes tinea capitis and fluoresces blue-green under Wood's light.
In which of the following patients would one most likely find acanthosis nigricans?
A A 55 year-old obese female with hyperinsulinemia
B A 55 year-old male with an enlarged spleen and pancytopenia
C A 24 year-old female with increased Lyme titers
D A 60 year-old male with increased triglycerides - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√A
Acanthosis nigricans is associated with patients who have hyperinsulinemia.
Which of the following interventions is the treatment of choice for actinic keratosis?
A Mohs surgery
B Cryotherapy
C Acid peels
D Radiation therapy - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√B
Cryotherapy is the treatment of choice for isolated superficial actinic keratosis.
Assistant Board Review, Clinical Vignettes, Answers & Explanations
Introduction
Dermatology is a high-yield component of PANCE preparation, with the
current NCCPA blueprint allocating 4% of the examination to the
Dermatologic System. This 2026-focused question set provides clinical
practice across common and important dermatologic disorders,
emphasizing recognition, diagnosis, differential diagnosis, treatment,
and patient management. Use the questions to strengthen clinical
reasoning and identify areas requiring additional review before the
PANCE.
Question and answer
Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) has activity against Pasteurella multocida which is the causative
agent in the majority of cat bite infections.
Which of the following is considered a risk factor for the development of malignant melanoma?
A male gender
B inability to tan
C Japanese ethnicity
D brown-haired individuals - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√B
Inability to tan and propensity to burn are risk factors for developing malignant melanoma.
As a general rule, sutures in the face should be removed in
A 2 days
,B 5 days
C 7 days
D 10 days - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√B
Sutures of the face should be removed in 3-5 days in order to allow for adequate healing and to limit the
amount of scarring.
A mother brings a 3 month-old infant to the office because she is concerned about a red, vascular,
nodular growth on the child's back. It appears to be enlarging slightly and the vessels are slightly dilated.
It seems to cause the child no discomfort. The most likely diagnosis is
A a hemangioma.
B a pigmented nevus.
C a salmon patch (stork bite).
D a malignant melanoma - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√A
A hemangioma is a bright red to deep purple vascular nodule or plaque that often develops at birth, may
enlarge, and may regress and disappear with aging.
Erythema nodosum is characterized by
A subcutaneous red tender nodules.
B brown pigmentation on the lower extremities.
C tender lymph nodes in the groin.
D scaling red macules. - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√A
Erythema nodosum produces erythematous red tender nodules, especially on the shins.
Which of the following mediators is responsible for initiating the urticaric response?
A Cyclic AMP
B Prostaglandins
C Prednisone
,D IgE - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√D
IgE triggers the release of histamine from mast cells that leads to urticaria.
A 45 year-old female presents to the emergency department with generalized, hot, erythema of the skin.
Physical exam reveals an oral temperature of 102 degrees Fahrenheit, purulent conjunctivitis, and
mucosal erosions. Her skin is painful and separates from the dermis with touch. Which of the following is
the most likely cause for this condition?
A Ampicillin
B Prednisolone
C Aspirin
D Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√A
Question 16 Explanation: Medications are most frequently implicated in toxic epidermal necrolysis. These
usually include, analgesics (NSAIDs), antibiotics (Ampicillin) and anticonvulsants (Carbamazepine).
A patient presents with loss of pigmentation on the back of hands, face, and body folds due to the
absence of epidermal melanocytes. There has been improvement with PUVA treatment. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A Pityriasis alba
B Tinea versicolor
C Vitiligo
D Melasma - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√C
Vitiligo is the acquired loss of pigmentation due to the absence of epidermal melanocytes presenting on
the back of hands, face, or body folds.
A 26 year-old female presents with several pruritic lesions on her dorsal forearms. The lesions are
erythematous with vesicles, with a few beginning to weep. She works in a photography laboratory, but
denies any other possible exposures. Which of the following is the most useful diagnostic test?
A VDRL serology
B KOH prep
, C Patch testing
D Gram's stain - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√C
Patch testing with a suspected agent is usually positive in cases of allergic contact dermatitis.
A positive Wood's light examination (fluorescence) demonstrates
A viral infection with herpes zoster.
B bacterial infection with Treponema pallidum.
C parasitic infestation with Pediculus humanus.
D mycotic infection with Microsporum canis. - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√D
Microsporum causes tinea capitis and fluoresces blue-green under Wood's light.
In which of the following patients would one most likely find acanthosis nigricans?
A A 55 year-old obese female with hyperinsulinemia
B A 55 year-old male with an enlarged spleen and pancytopenia
C A 24 year-old female with increased Lyme titers
D A 60 year-old male with increased triglycerides - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√A
Acanthosis nigricans is associated with patients who have hyperinsulinemia.
Which of the following interventions is the treatment of choice for actinic keratosis?
A Mohs surgery
B Cryotherapy
C Acid peels
D Radiation therapy - √√CORRECT ANSWER√√B
Cryotherapy is the treatment of choice for isolated superficial actinic keratosis.
