NCLEX Readiness Made Easy | ATI RN
Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Level 3 | Forms A, B
and C | RN Program Exit Exam | Actual and Retake
| 180 NGN Questions and Answers
1. A competent adult client refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons. Which actions
should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A. Verify the client understands risks
B. Document the refusal
C. Administer the transfusion if Hgb is critical
D. Notify the provider
E. Ask the family to override the decision
Correct Answers: A, B, D
Rationale: Competent adults have autonomy. The nurse ensures informed refusal, documents,
and notifies the provider .
2. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Post-op day 2 with pain 6/10
B. COPD client with O₂ sat 88% on room air
C. Client waiting for discharge teaching
D. Stable diabetic requesting a snack
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Airway and oxygenation take priority. An O₂ sat of 88% indicates respiratory
compromise .
3. A charge nurse is making client assignments on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should
be assigned to the most experienced RN?
A. A client with diabetes mellitus requiring insulin administration
B. A client with pneumonia requiring q4h vital signs
C. A client with chest tubes and new onset of respiratory distress
D. A client with a urinary tract infection requiring IV antibiotics
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client with chest tubes and respiratory distress is unstable and requires complex
assessment and intervention. This client should be assigned to the most experienced RN .
4. Which finding in a client who is 24 hours post-surgery requires immediate intervention?
A. Temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C)
,B. WBC count 12,000/mm³
C. Sudden abdominal rigidity
D. Pain rating of 4 on a 0–10 scale
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sudden abdominal rigidity suggests peritonitis or internal bleeding – a medical
emergency. Low-grade fever and mild leukocytosis are expected post-op .
5. A charge nurse is teaching newly licensed nurses about critical pathways. Which
information should the nurse include?
A. Critical pathways have an unlimited timeframe for completion
B. Critical pathways decrease healthcare costs
C. Critical pathways eliminate the need for nursing documentation
D. Critical pathways are only used in intensive care units
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Critical pathways are multidisciplinary care plans with specific timeframes for
completion. They decrease healthcare costs by standardizing care and reducing unnecessary
interventions .
6. A nurse is participating in a disaster drill. Which client should be tagged as "immediate"
(red tag)?
A. A client with a minor laceration and stable vital signs
B. A client with an open femur fracture and weak pulse
C. A client with a head injury who is not breathing
D. A client with a sprained ankle who is walking
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In mass casualty triage, clients with life-threatening injuries that are treatable with
rapid intervention (hypovolemic shock, open fracture with weak pulse) are "immediate" (red
tag). Massive head trauma is "expectant" (black tag) .
7. A nurse is evaluating a client's understanding of their discharge instructions. Which method
is most effective for assessing understanding?
A. Asking the client if they have any questions
B. Asking the client to repeat back the instructions in their own words
C. Giving the client written instructions to read at home
D. Asking the family to confirm the client understands
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The teach-back method (asking the client to repeat instructions in their own words)
is the most effective way to assess understanding .
, 8. A nurse is caring for a client who is a candidate for organ donation. The family is hesitant to
consent. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Tell the family that the client would have wanted to donate
B. Inform the family that organ donation is required by law
C. Provide the family with information about organ donation and support their decision-making
process
D. Contact the organ procurement organization without family consent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should provide information and support the family's decision-making
process while respecting their autonomy .
9. Two nurses are having a conflict about scheduling. The nurse manager's best approach is
to:
A. Ignore the conflict and hope it resolves on its own
B. Assign the nurses to different shifts to avoid interaction
C. Meet with both nurses together to discuss the issue and find a solution
D. Decide the outcome without input from the nurses
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Meeting with both nurses together allows them to express their perspectives and
work toward a mutually acceptable solution .
10. A charge nurse is reviewing the use of restraints with staff. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. "I can apply wrist restraints for up to 4 hours without a new prescription"
B. "I will document a verbal order for restraints within 4 hours"
C. "Restraints require a prescription that specifies the type and duration"
D. "I can use restraints as needed for client safety without a prescription"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Restraints require a written prescription specifying the type and duration. Verbal
orders must be obtained promptly and renewed frequently. PRN restraint orders are not
permitted .
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a physical restraint. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a prescription from the provider
B. Explain the reason for restraint to the client and family
C. Assess the client for alternative interventions
D. Apply the restraint securely to the bed frame
Correct Answer: C
Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Level 3 | Forms A, B
and C | RN Program Exit Exam | Actual and Retake
| 180 NGN Questions and Answers
1. A competent adult client refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons. Which actions
should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A. Verify the client understands risks
B. Document the refusal
C. Administer the transfusion if Hgb is critical
D. Notify the provider
E. Ask the family to override the decision
Correct Answers: A, B, D
Rationale: Competent adults have autonomy. The nurse ensures informed refusal, documents,
and notifies the provider .
2. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Post-op day 2 with pain 6/10
B. COPD client with O₂ sat 88% on room air
C. Client waiting for discharge teaching
D. Stable diabetic requesting a snack
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Airway and oxygenation take priority. An O₂ sat of 88% indicates respiratory
compromise .
3. A charge nurse is making client assignments on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should
be assigned to the most experienced RN?
A. A client with diabetes mellitus requiring insulin administration
B. A client with pneumonia requiring q4h vital signs
C. A client with chest tubes and new onset of respiratory distress
D. A client with a urinary tract infection requiring IV antibiotics
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client with chest tubes and respiratory distress is unstable and requires complex
assessment and intervention. This client should be assigned to the most experienced RN .
4. Which finding in a client who is 24 hours post-surgery requires immediate intervention?
A. Temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C)
,B. WBC count 12,000/mm³
C. Sudden abdominal rigidity
D. Pain rating of 4 on a 0–10 scale
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sudden abdominal rigidity suggests peritonitis or internal bleeding – a medical
emergency. Low-grade fever and mild leukocytosis are expected post-op .
5. A charge nurse is teaching newly licensed nurses about critical pathways. Which
information should the nurse include?
A. Critical pathways have an unlimited timeframe for completion
B. Critical pathways decrease healthcare costs
C. Critical pathways eliminate the need for nursing documentation
D. Critical pathways are only used in intensive care units
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Critical pathways are multidisciplinary care plans with specific timeframes for
completion. They decrease healthcare costs by standardizing care and reducing unnecessary
interventions .
6. A nurse is participating in a disaster drill. Which client should be tagged as "immediate"
(red tag)?
A. A client with a minor laceration and stable vital signs
B. A client with an open femur fracture and weak pulse
C. A client with a head injury who is not breathing
D. A client with a sprained ankle who is walking
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In mass casualty triage, clients with life-threatening injuries that are treatable with
rapid intervention (hypovolemic shock, open fracture with weak pulse) are "immediate" (red
tag). Massive head trauma is "expectant" (black tag) .
7. A nurse is evaluating a client's understanding of their discharge instructions. Which method
is most effective for assessing understanding?
A. Asking the client if they have any questions
B. Asking the client to repeat back the instructions in their own words
C. Giving the client written instructions to read at home
D. Asking the family to confirm the client understands
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The teach-back method (asking the client to repeat instructions in their own words)
is the most effective way to assess understanding .
, 8. A nurse is caring for a client who is a candidate for organ donation. The family is hesitant to
consent. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Tell the family that the client would have wanted to donate
B. Inform the family that organ donation is required by law
C. Provide the family with information about organ donation and support their decision-making
process
D. Contact the organ procurement organization without family consent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should provide information and support the family's decision-making
process while respecting their autonomy .
9. Two nurses are having a conflict about scheduling. The nurse manager's best approach is
to:
A. Ignore the conflict and hope it resolves on its own
B. Assign the nurses to different shifts to avoid interaction
C. Meet with both nurses together to discuss the issue and find a solution
D. Decide the outcome without input from the nurses
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Meeting with both nurses together allows them to express their perspectives and
work toward a mutually acceptable solution .
10. A charge nurse is reviewing the use of restraints with staff. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. "I can apply wrist restraints for up to 4 hours without a new prescription"
B. "I will document a verbal order for restraints within 4 hours"
C. "Restraints require a prescription that specifies the type and duration"
D. "I can use restraints as needed for client safety without a prescription"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Restraints require a written prescription specifying the type and duration. Verbal
orders must be obtained promptly and renewed frequently. PRN restraint orders are not
permitted .
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a physical restraint. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a prescription from the provider
B. Explain the reason for restraint to the client and family
C. Assess the client for alternative interventions
D. Apply the restraint securely to the bed frame
Correct Answer: C
