HESI PN EXIT EXAM 2026 |
VERSIONS 1 & 2 BUNDLE |
PRACTICAL NURSING HESI EXIT
PRENIUM EXAM
200 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
HESI PN EXIT EXAM 2026 | VERSIONS 1 & 2 BUNDLE | PRACTICAL NURSING HESI EXIT EXAM.. It contains
200 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question
is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 200 Questions
Foundations - Application - HESI PN EXIT 2026 Versions 1 & 2 Bundle Practical Nursing HESI EXIT
Practical Nursing / HESI EXIT Undergraduate YEAR 3 Practical Nursing
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Management OF CARE 1-34 Indicates, Finding, Prescribed, Laboratory, Requires
Safety AND Infection Control 35-68 Indicates, Prescribed, Finding, Teaching, Infusion
Health Promotion AND 69-102 Prescribed, Indicates, Teaching, Receiving, Finding
Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity 103-136 Finding, Prescribed, Medication, Immediate, Indicates
Basic CARE AND Comfort 137-170 Finding, Intervention, Receiving, Appropriate, Indicates
Pharmacological Therapies 171-200 Prescribed, Indicates, Finding, Receiving, Laboratory
TOTAL 200 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A patient with chronic kidney disease (stage 4) is prescribed lisinopril and spironolactone.
Which set of laboratory values warrants immediate intervention?
A. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L, creatinine 2.9 B. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L, creatinine 1.8
mg/dL, BUN 42 mg/dL mg/dL, BUN 24 mg/dL
C. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L, creatinine 2.0 D. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L, creatinine 2.5
mg/dL, BUN 30 mg/dL mg/dL, BUN 36 mg/dL
Correct: A - Potassium 5.8 mEq/L, creatinine 2.9 mg/dL, BUN 42 mg/dL
Rationale:Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) and spironolactone (potassium-sparing diuretic) both
increase serum potassium. A potassium of 5.8 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can
cause lethal cardiac arrhythmias. The elevated creatinine and BUN reflect worsening renal
function. The other options show potassium levels within safer ranges, though still requiring
monitoring.
Q2.
A nurse is assessing a postpartum patient who had a vaginal delivery 12 hours ago.
Which finding requires immediate follow-up?
A. Moderate lochia rubra with small clots B. Temperature 99.5°F (37.5°C)
C. Urinary output of 30 mL over 2 hours D. Afterpains during breastfeeding
Correct: C - Urinary output of 30 mL over 2 hours
Rationale:A urinary output of 30 mL over 2 hours is below the expected 30-50 mL/hour and
may indicate bladder distention, dehydration, or postpartum hemorrhage. Moderate lochia
rubra and small clots are normal in the first 24 hours. A temperature of 99.5°F is slightly
elevated but not alarming. Afterpains during breastfeeding are expected due to oxytocin
release.
Q3.
A patient on a medical-surgical unit suddenly becomes confused and restless. Which
action should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Apply wrist restraints to prevent injury B. Obtain a prescription for a sedative
C. Assess vital signs and oxygen saturation D. Call the healthcare provider for an order
for a CT scan
Correct: C - Assess vital signs and oxygen saturation
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
Rationale: The ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) guide initial assessment. A sudden
change in mental status often indicates hypoxia, hypotension, or other physiological
instability. Assessing vital signs and oxygen saturation provides critical data to identify the
cause. Restraints or sedatives may be needed later but are not the first action. CT scan may
be warranted but not before stabilizing the patient.
Q4.
Which of the following patients should the nurse assign to a licensed practical nurse
(LPN) rather than a registered nurse (RN)?
A. A patient with new-onset atrial fibrillation B. A patient with a tracheostomy needing
requiring continuous monitoring routine suctioning and tracheostomy care
C. A patient receiving a blood transfusion for D. A patient with unstable angina
the first time experiencing chest pain
Correct: B - A patient with a tracheostomy needing routine suctioning and tracheostomy
care
Rationale:LPNs are trained to perform routine tracheostomy care and suctioning in stable
patients. Patients with new-onset atrial fibrillation, blood transfusions, or unstable angina
require the assessment and critical thinking skills of an RN. Delegation should match the
patient's acuity and the LPN's scope of practice.
Q5.
A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a patient with type 2 diabetes. Which
combination indicates a potential drug interaction that requires careful monitoring?
A. Metformin and lisinopril B. Glyburide and ciprofloxacin
C. Insulin glargine and atorvastatin D. Sitagliptin and metformin
Correct: B - Glyburide and ciprofloxacin
Rationale:Fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin can enhance the hypoglycemic effects of
sulfonylureas such as glyburide, leading to severe hypoglycemia. Metformin and lisinopril,
insulin glargine and atorvastatin, and sitagliptin and metformin are common combinations
without significant interaction requiring special monitoring beyond usual care.
Q6.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient with a new colostomy. Which
statement indicates the patient understands the care?
A. I will change the pouch every day to B. I should avoid foods like broccoli and
prevent infection. cabbage to reduce gas.
Page 4
VERSIONS 1 & 2 BUNDLE |
PRACTICAL NURSING HESI EXIT
PRENIUM EXAM
200 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
HESI PN EXIT EXAM 2026 | VERSIONS 1 & 2 BUNDLE | PRACTICAL NURSING HESI EXIT EXAM.. It contains
200 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question
is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 200 Questions
Foundations - Application - HESI PN EXIT 2026 Versions 1 & 2 Bundle Practical Nursing HESI EXIT
Practical Nursing / HESI EXIT Undergraduate YEAR 3 Practical Nursing
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Management OF CARE 1-34 Indicates, Finding, Prescribed, Laboratory, Requires
Safety AND Infection Control 35-68 Indicates, Prescribed, Finding, Teaching, Infusion
Health Promotion AND 69-102 Prescribed, Indicates, Teaching, Receiving, Finding
Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity 103-136 Finding, Prescribed, Medication, Immediate, Indicates
Basic CARE AND Comfort 137-170 Finding, Intervention, Receiving, Appropriate, Indicates
Pharmacological Therapies 171-200 Prescribed, Indicates, Finding, Receiving, Laboratory
TOTAL 200 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A patient with chronic kidney disease (stage 4) is prescribed lisinopril and spironolactone.
Which set of laboratory values warrants immediate intervention?
A. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L, creatinine 2.9 B. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L, creatinine 1.8
mg/dL, BUN 42 mg/dL mg/dL, BUN 24 mg/dL
C. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L, creatinine 2.0 D. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L, creatinine 2.5
mg/dL, BUN 30 mg/dL mg/dL, BUN 36 mg/dL
Correct: A - Potassium 5.8 mEq/L, creatinine 2.9 mg/dL, BUN 42 mg/dL
Rationale:Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) and spironolactone (potassium-sparing diuretic) both
increase serum potassium. A potassium of 5.8 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can
cause lethal cardiac arrhythmias. The elevated creatinine and BUN reflect worsening renal
function. The other options show potassium levels within safer ranges, though still requiring
monitoring.
Q2.
A nurse is assessing a postpartum patient who had a vaginal delivery 12 hours ago.
Which finding requires immediate follow-up?
A. Moderate lochia rubra with small clots B. Temperature 99.5°F (37.5°C)
C. Urinary output of 30 mL over 2 hours D. Afterpains during breastfeeding
Correct: C - Urinary output of 30 mL over 2 hours
Rationale:A urinary output of 30 mL over 2 hours is below the expected 30-50 mL/hour and
may indicate bladder distention, dehydration, or postpartum hemorrhage. Moderate lochia
rubra and small clots are normal in the first 24 hours. A temperature of 99.5°F is slightly
elevated but not alarming. Afterpains during breastfeeding are expected due to oxytocin
release.
Q3.
A patient on a medical-surgical unit suddenly becomes confused and restless. Which
action should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Apply wrist restraints to prevent injury B. Obtain a prescription for a sedative
C. Assess vital signs and oxygen saturation D. Call the healthcare provider for an order
for a CT scan
Correct: C - Assess vital signs and oxygen saturation
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
Rationale: The ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) guide initial assessment. A sudden
change in mental status often indicates hypoxia, hypotension, or other physiological
instability. Assessing vital signs and oxygen saturation provides critical data to identify the
cause. Restraints or sedatives may be needed later but are not the first action. CT scan may
be warranted but not before stabilizing the patient.
Q4.
Which of the following patients should the nurse assign to a licensed practical nurse
(LPN) rather than a registered nurse (RN)?
A. A patient with new-onset atrial fibrillation B. A patient with a tracheostomy needing
requiring continuous monitoring routine suctioning and tracheostomy care
C. A patient receiving a blood transfusion for D. A patient with unstable angina
the first time experiencing chest pain
Correct: B - A patient with a tracheostomy needing routine suctioning and tracheostomy
care
Rationale:LPNs are trained to perform routine tracheostomy care and suctioning in stable
patients. Patients with new-onset atrial fibrillation, blood transfusions, or unstable angina
require the assessment and critical thinking skills of an RN. Delegation should match the
patient's acuity and the LPN's scope of practice.
Q5.
A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a patient with type 2 diabetes. Which
combination indicates a potential drug interaction that requires careful monitoring?
A. Metformin and lisinopril B. Glyburide and ciprofloxacin
C. Insulin glargine and atorvastatin D. Sitagliptin and metformin
Correct: B - Glyburide and ciprofloxacin
Rationale:Fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin can enhance the hypoglycemic effects of
sulfonylureas such as glyburide, leading to severe hypoglycemia. Metformin and lisinopril,
insulin glargine and atorvastatin, and sitagliptin and metformin are common combinations
without significant interaction requiring special monitoring beyond usual care.
Q6.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient with a new colostomy. Which
statement indicates the patient understands the care?
A. I will change the pouch every day to B. I should avoid foods like broccoli and
prevent infection. cabbage to reduce gas.
Page 4
