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NSG 3250 Adult Health I Exam 4 Study Guide 2026

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Master key medical-surgical concepts for the NSG 3250 Adult Health I course with this comprehensive 2026 practice exam guide. Designed to prepare nursing students for core clinical assessments, this test prep resource features 50 high-yield practice questions complete with verified answer keys and detailed rationales. Key topics covered include cardiovascular disorders (heart failure manifestations, DVT, MI symptoms in elderly females), respiratory interventions (chest tube safety, ABG analysis, VAP prevention), endocrine management (hypoglycemia, Addison’s disease, Cushing’s syndrome, HHS), fluid and electrolyte balance (hyperkalemia ECG changes, hypocalcemia), critical safety protocols (seizure care, blood transfusion verification, infection control), and essential pharmacology principles (heparin/aPTT monitoring, insulin onset times, warfarin therapeutic ranges).

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NSG 3250 Adult Health I Exam 4 Practice Quiz 2026 UPDATE




1. A nurse is caring for a client with left-sided heart failure. Which of the following clinical

manifestations should the nurse expect to find?

A. Peripheral edema


B. Crackles in the lungs


C. Jugular venous distension (JVD)


D. Hepatomegaly


Answer: B


Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary system,

leading to pulmonary congestion and crackles. Options A, B, and D are signs of right-sided

heart failure.


2. Which lab value is the most important to monitor for a patient receiving a heparin infusion

for a pulmonary embolism?

A. Prothrombin time (PT)


B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)


C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)


D. Platelet count

,Answer: C


Rationale: aPTT is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin. PT and INR are used

to monitor Warfarin therapy.


3. A client is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should teach the client that

which of the following is a symptom of hypoglycemia?

A. Extreme thirst


B. Shakiness and diaphoresis


C. Frequent urination


D. Fruity-smelling breath


Answer: B


Rationale: Hypoglycemia triggers the sympathetic nervous system, causing shakiness,

sweating (diaphoresis), and palpitations. Thirst and fruity breath are signs of

hyperglycemia/DKA.


4. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is a client with chronic kidney disease most

at risk for developing?

A. Hypokalemia


B. Hypomagnesemia


C. Hyponatremia


D. Hyperkalemia

, Answer: D


Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys’ ability to excrete potassium is impaired,

leading to hyperkalemia, which can cause dangerous cardiac arrhythmias.


5. When caring for a patient with a chest tube, which observation requires immediate

intervention?

A. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber


B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber with respiration


C. Constant, vigorous bubbling in the water seal chamber


D. Drainage of 50 mL of serosanguinous fluid in 2 hours


Answer: C


Rationale: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates a persistent air leak in

the system or the patient’s thorax. Intermittent bubbling is normal for a pneumothorax.


6. A patient has a pH of 7.30, PaCO2 of 52 mmHg, and HCO3 of 24 mEq/L. How should the

nurse interpret these ABG results?

A. Metabolic acidosis


B. Respiratory acidosis


C. Respiratory alkalosis


D. Metabolic alkalosis


Answer: B

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