NSG 6998 APEA PREDICTOR FINAL EXAM
NSG 6998 APEA Predictor Final Exam Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Nurse
Practitioner | Questions with Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Pass
Guaranteed
Gradegurus
,NSG 6998 APEA Predictor Final Exam
Actual Exam Practice Questions
2026/2027 Update
1. A 32-year-old male patient complains of urinary frequency and burning on
urination for 3 days. Urinalysis reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He
denies any past history of urinary tract infections. What is the most appropriate
initial treatment and duration?
A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for 10-14 days
C. A one-time dose of 750 mg ciprofloxacin
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for 7-10 days
Answer: D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for 7-10 days
Rationale: For a male patient with a UTI, a longer course of 7-10 days is necessary
to ensure eradication of the pathogen and to cover for possible prostatic
involvement. While TMP-SMX is often first-line if local resistance is <20%, the key
differentiator here is the duration based on the patient's sex. Women with
,uncomplicated cystitis may be treated for 3 days, but men require a longer course
2. Which physical examination finding in an elderly adult is most concerning and
warrants further diagnostic investigation?
A. Symmetrically diminished Achilles tendon reflexes
B. Gynecomastia in a male
C. Facial hair on the chin of a female
D. Dimpling in the right breast of a female
Answer: D. Dimpling in the right breast of a female
Rationale: Breast dimpling (peau d'orange) is a classic sign of underlying breast
pathology, most concerning for inflammatory breast cancer, and requires
immediate follow-up with imaging and possible biopsy. The other findings can be
age-related or benign: symmetric reflex diminution can occur with aging,
gynecomastia is often benign in older males, and facial hair in postmenopausal
females is common due to hormonal shifts .
3. A 15-year-old high school student presents with a mild sore throat and low-
grade fever that has persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise,
fatigue, and loss of appetite. The NP suspects mononucleosis. Which of the
following is the LEAST appropriate initial intervention?
A. Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen
B. Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae
C. Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and heterophil antibody test
D. Obtain urinalysis and serum for LFTs and amylase
Answer: D. Obtain urinalysis and serum for LFTs and amylase
Rationale: While elevated liver enzymes (LFTs) can be seen in mononucleosis,
ordering a broad panel that includes amylase is not a targeted or necessary initial
step for diagnosis. The priority is a focused history and physical (looking for
lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, pharyngeal petechiae) and confirming the
diagnosis with a CBC (for lymphocytosis) and a heterophil antibody test
(Monospot). UA and amylase are not part of the routine diagnostic workup for
mono .
, 4. A depressed patient has been treated and has had relief of symptoms while on
medication. Which patient statement indicates a correct understanding of their
diagnosis and treatment plan?
A. "It is unlikely that I will have a recurrence of depression in my lifetime."
B. "I must remain on medication for about 6 months since this is my first episode
of depression."
C. "I do not need to be weaned off my anti-depressant medication."
D. "It's OK if I skip my medicine every once in a while."
Answer: B. "I must remain on medication for about 6 months since this is my first
episode of depression."
Rationale: Current clinical guidelines recommend continuing antidepressant
therapy for at least 6 to 12 months after achieving remission for a first episode of
major depression to prevent relapse. Antidepressants are not habit-forming, but
they must be taken consistently to maintain therapeutic effect, and they typically
require a taper to discontinue safely and avoid withdrawal symptoms .
5. A 2-week-old infant is brought to the clinic after a difficult delivery. On
examination, the NP notes decreased movement of the right arm during the
Moro reflex and crepitus on palpation of the right clavicle. The diagnosis is a
fracture of the clavicle. What is the recommended management?
A. Apply a "figure-8" clavicle brace.
B. Apply a shoulder/spica cast to immobilize the fracture for 6 weeks.
C. Provide instructions to the parents on gentle handling and supportive care.
D. Refer immediately to an orthopedic surgeon.
Answer: C. Provide instructions to the parents on gentle handling and supportive
care.
Rationale: A clavicle fracture in a newborn, often resulting from a difficult delivery,
is managed conservatively. The fracture heals rapidly with excellent prognosis.
Treatment involves supportive care, such as immobilizing the arm on the affected
side by pinning the sleeve to the shirt and instructing parents to handle the infant
gently. Surgical intervention or aggressive bracing is not indicated .
NSG 6998 APEA Predictor Final Exam Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Nurse
Practitioner | Questions with Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Pass
Guaranteed
Gradegurus
,NSG 6998 APEA Predictor Final Exam
Actual Exam Practice Questions
2026/2027 Update
1. A 32-year-old male patient complains of urinary frequency and burning on
urination for 3 days. Urinalysis reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He
denies any past history of urinary tract infections. What is the most appropriate
initial treatment and duration?
A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for 10-14 days
C. A one-time dose of 750 mg ciprofloxacin
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for 7-10 days
Answer: D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for 7-10 days
Rationale: For a male patient with a UTI, a longer course of 7-10 days is necessary
to ensure eradication of the pathogen and to cover for possible prostatic
involvement. While TMP-SMX is often first-line if local resistance is <20%, the key
differentiator here is the duration based on the patient's sex. Women with
,uncomplicated cystitis may be treated for 3 days, but men require a longer course
2. Which physical examination finding in an elderly adult is most concerning and
warrants further diagnostic investigation?
A. Symmetrically diminished Achilles tendon reflexes
B. Gynecomastia in a male
C. Facial hair on the chin of a female
D. Dimpling in the right breast of a female
Answer: D. Dimpling in the right breast of a female
Rationale: Breast dimpling (peau d'orange) is a classic sign of underlying breast
pathology, most concerning for inflammatory breast cancer, and requires
immediate follow-up with imaging and possible biopsy. The other findings can be
age-related or benign: symmetric reflex diminution can occur with aging,
gynecomastia is often benign in older males, and facial hair in postmenopausal
females is common due to hormonal shifts .
3. A 15-year-old high school student presents with a mild sore throat and low-
grade fever that has persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise,
fatigue, and loss of appetite. The NP suspects mononucleosis. Which of the
following is the LEAST appropriate initial intervention?
A. Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen
B. Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae
C. Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and heterophil antibody test
D. Obtain urinalysis and serum for LFTs and amylase
Answer: D. Obtain urinalysis and serum for LFTs and amylase
Rationale: While elevated liver enzymes (LFTs) can be seen in mononucleosis,
ordering a broad panel that includes amylase is not a targeted or necessary initial
step for diagnosis. The priority is a focused history and physical (looking for
lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, pharyngeal petechiae) and confirming the
diagnosis with a CBC (for lymphocytosis) and a heterophil antibody test
(Monospot). UA and amylase are not part of the routine diagnostic workup for
mono .
, 4. A depressed patient has been treated and has had relief of symptoms while on
medication. Which patient statement indicates a correct understanding of their
diagnosis and treatment plan?
A. "It is unlikely that I will have a recurrence of depression in my lifetime."
B. "I must remain on medication for about 6 months since this is my first episode
of depression."
C. "I do not need to be weaned off my anti-depressant medication."
D. "It's OK if I skip my medicine every once in a while."
Answer: B. "I must remain on medication for about 6 months since this is my first
episode of depression."
Rationale: Current clinical guidelines recommend continuing antidepressant
therapy for at least 6 to 12 months after achieving remission for a first episode of
major depression to prevent relapse. Antidepressants are not habit-forming, but
they must be taken consistently to maintain therapeutic effect, and they typically
require a taper to discontinue safely and avoid withdrawal symptoms .
5. A 2-week-old infant is brought to the clinic after a difficult delivery. On
examination, the NP notes decreased movement of the right arm during the
Moro reflex and crepitus on palpation of the right clavicle. The diagnosis is a
fracture of the clavicle. What is the recommended management?
A. Apply a "figure-8" clavicle brace.
B. Apply a shoulder/spica cast to immobilize the fracture for 6 weeks.
C. Provide instructions to the parents on gentle handling and supportive care.
D. Refer immediately to an orthopedic surgeon.
Answer: C. Provide instructions to the parents on gentle handling and supportive
care.
Rationale: A clavicle fracture in a newborn, often resulting from a difficult delivery,
is managed conservatively. The fracture heals rapidly with excellent prognosis.
Treatment involves supportive care, such as immobilizing the arm on the affected
side by pinning the sleeve to the shirt and instructing parents to handle the infant
gently. Surgical intervention or aggressive bracing is not indicated .
