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NU NUR 340 Module 5 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | Nursing Care of Adults and Older Adults II Q&A | Nursing

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This document helps you master the NUR 340 Module 5 Nursing Care of Adults and Older Adults II exam at National University via targeted Q&A with detailed rationales. It covers neurological disorders including stroke and seizures; endocrine disorders such as diabetes mellitus and thyroid dysfunction; renal and genitourinary disorders; musculoskeletal conditions including fractures and osteoarthritis; hematological and immunological disorders; and geriatric considerations across all body systems. Engineered to maximize retention and sharpen critical understanding, this test pack simplifies complex content, saving preparation time and helping you secure an A on your Module 5 Assessment.

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NU NUR 340 Module 5 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | Nursing Care of Adults and
Older Adults II Q&A | Nursing

1. A nurse is caring for a patient with acute pancreatitis. Which of the
following laboratory findings is most consistent with this diagnosis?

A) Elevated serum amylase and lipase

B) Elevated liver enzymes and bilirubin

C) Decreased serum calcium and magnesium

D) Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine



Correct Answer: Elevated serum amylase and lipase



Rationale: Acute pancreatitis is characterized by the release of pancreatic
enzymes into the bloodstream, resulting in elevated serum amylase and
lipase. These are the most specific and sensitive markers for the diagnosis.
Elevated liver enzymes suggest biliary disease, hypocalcemia can occur but
is not diagnostic, and elevated BUN/creatinine indicate renal impairment.



2. A patient with acute pancreatitis is placed on NPO status. The nurse
understands that the primary reason for this intervention is to:

A) Prevent aspiration of gastric contents

B) Allow the pancreas to rest and reduce enzyme secretion

C) Prevent malnutrition and muscle wasting

D) Reduce the patient's abdominal pain



Correct Answer: Allow the pancreas to rest and reduce enzyme secretion



Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, the pancreas is inflamed and releasing
enzymes that can further damage the organ. Keeping the patient NPO
reduces the stimulation of pancreatic secretion, allowing the pancreas to rest

,and heal. While pain reduction is a benefit, the primary goal is to decrease
enzyme secretion.



3. A nurse is assessing a patient with chronic pancreatitis. Which of the
following findings is most commonly associated with this condition?

A) Steatorrhea and weight loss

B) Hypertension and tachycardia

C) Jaundice and pruritus

D) Polyuria and polydipsia



Correct Answer: Steatorrhea and weight loss



Rationale: Chronic pancreatitis leads to the destruction of the exocrine
pancreas, resulting in malabsorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins. This
causes steatorrhea (fatty, foul-smelling stools) and weight loss. Jaundice and
pruritus are associated with biliary obstruction, and polyuria/polydipsia are
signs of diabetes.



4. A patient with chronic pancreatitis is prescribed pancreatic enzyme
supplements. The nurse should instruct the patient to take the enzymes:

A) With meals and snacks

B) On an empty stomach

C) At bedtime only

D) With a full glass of milk



Correct Answer: With meals and snacks



Rationale: Pancreatic enzyme supplements should be taken with meals and
snacks to aid in the digestion of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates. Taking

,them on an empty stomach would not provide the enzymes at the time they
are needed for digestion.



5. A nurse is assessing a patient with cholecystitis. Which of the following
findings is most characteristic of this condition?

A) Right upper quadrant pain radiating to the right shoulder

B) Left upper quadrant pain radiating to the back

C) Epigastric pain relieved by food

D) Periumbilical pain and nausea



Correct Answer: Right upper quadrant pain radiating to the right shoulder



Rationale: Cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder) typically presents
with right upper quadrant pain that may radiate to the right shoulder
(referred pain due to diaphragmatic irritation). The pain is often precipitated
by a fatty meal.



6. A patient is scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The nurse should teach the
patient about which of the following postoperative dietary modifications?

A) A low-fat diet

B) A high-fiber diet

C) A low-protein diet

D) A liquid diet for 1 week



Correct Answer: A low-fat diet



Rationale: After a cholecystectomy, the continuous flow of bile into the
intestine can cause diarrhea and digestive issues, especially with high-fat
meals. A low-fat diet is recommended to minimize these symptoms.

, 7. A patient is 1 day post-operative from a cholecystectomy. Which of the
following findings requires immediate intervention?

A) Complaints of incisional pain rated 6/10

B) Nausea and vomiting

C) Drainage of bile from the surgical site

D) Temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)



Correct Answer: Drainage of bile from the surgical site



Rationale: Bile drainage from the surgical site indicates a bile leak, which is a
serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Incisional pain,
nausea, and mild fever are expected post-operative findings.



8. A nurse is assessing a patient with cirrhosis. Which of the following
findings is most consistent with portal hypertension?

A) Ascites and esophageal varices

B) Jaundice and pruritus

C) Spider angiomas and palmar erythema

D) Peripheral edema and confusion



Correct Answer: Ascites and esophageal varices



Rationale: Portal hypertension is a major complication of cirrhosis, leading to
the development of ascites (fluid in the abdomen) and esophageal varices
(dilated veins in the esophagus). Jaundice, spider angiomas, and palmar
erythema are related to liver dysfunction, and confusion may indicate
hepatic encephalopathy.

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