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BIOD 151 Modules 1-6 Final Exam Review Essential Human Anatomy & Physiology I | Complete Study Pack

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BIOD 151 Modules 1-6 Final Exam Review Essential Human Anatomy & Physiology I | Complete Study Pack

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BIOD 151 Modules 1-6 Final Exam Review
Essential Human Anatomy & Physiology I | Complete Study Pack
Question 1. The primary function of the digestive system is to:
A. Break down and absorb nutrients ✓
B. Produce hormones
C. Transport oxygen
Question 2. Which of the following best describes the dermatome concept in
clinical assessment?
A. A specific area of skin innervated by sensory fibers from a single
spinal nerve ✓
B. A region of the brain responsible for a single sensory modality
C. A muscle group innervated by a single spinal nerve
Question 3. Which of the following best describes decubitus ulcer prevention
using pressure-redistributing surfaces?
A. Specialized mattresses reduce sustained pressure over bony
prominences ✓
B. Firm mattresses increase blood flow to at-risk areas
C. Pressure-redistributing surfaces eliminate the need for repositioning
Question 4. Canaliculi function to:
A. Connect lacunae, allowing nutrient and waste exchange between
osteocytes ✓
B. Store bone marrow
C. House blood vessels exclusively
Question 5. A synchondrosis, such as the epiphyseal plate, is a cartilaginous joint
composed of which cartilage type?
A. Hyaline cartilage ✓
B. Fibrocartilage
C. Elastic cartilage
Question 6. Which of the following best describes the function of the reticular
activating system?
A. Regulating arousal, wakefulness, and the sleep-wake cycle ✓
B. Producing cerebrospinal fluid
C. Coordinating fine motor movement

,Question 7. The G2 phase of interphase occurs:
A. After DNA replication and before mitosis ✓
B. Before DNA replication
C. During cytokinesis
Question 8. Which ligament commonly injured in the knee helps prevent
excessive forward movement of the tibia relative to the femur?
A. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) ✓
B. Fibular collateral ligament
C. Patellar ligament only
Question 9. Melanin production functions primarily to:
A. Protect underlying tissue from UV radiation damage ✓
B. Provide structural strength to the epidermis
C. Regulate body temperature
Question 10. Appositional growth refers to an increase in bone:
A. Width/diameter ✓
B. Length only
C. Marrow volume
Question 11. A red blood cell placed in a hypertonic solution will:
A. Shrink (crenate) ✓
B. Swell and potentially lyse
C. Remain unchanged
Question 12. Which of the following best describes why skeletal muscle appears
striated under a microscope?
A. The regular arrangement of actin and myosin filaments ✓
B. Random clustering of mitochondria
C. The presence of a single nucleus per fiber
Question 13. Which of the following best describes metabolism?
A. All chemical reactions occurring within the body ✓
B. The process of cell division
C. The exchange of gases in the lungs
Question 14. Which skin cancer arises from melanocytes and is the most
aggressive, with high metastatic potential?
A. Melanoma ✓

, B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
Question 15. Which synovial joint type allows the greatest range of motion, such
as the shoulder and hip?
A. Ball-and-socket joint ✓
B. Hinge joint
C. Gliding joint
Question 16. Gliding (plane) joints, such as those between carpal bones, allow
which type of movement?
A. Short, flat, sliding movements ✓
B. Rotation only
C. Extensive circular movement
Question 17. Sutures, the immovable joints found between cranial bones, are
classified as which joint type?
A. Fibrous joints ✓
B. Cartilaginous joints
C. Synovial joints
Question 18. Single-unit (visceral) smooth muscle is characterized by:
A. Cells electrically coupled via gap junctions, contracting as a unit ✓
B. Independent contraction of each individual cell
C. Voluntary control
Question 19. The skin synthesizes which vitamin when exposed to UV radiation?
A. Vitamin D ✓
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin B12
Question 20. The ground substance and fibers of connective tissue together make
up the:
A. Extracellular matrix ✓
B. Cytoplasm
C. Nucleoplasm
Question 21. A lower Glasgow Coma Scale score indicates:
A. A more severely reduced level of consciousness ✓
B. A higher level of alertness

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