NAVLE EXAM
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE (2026/2027 EDITION)
200 Multiple-Choice Questions - Complete Practice Exam
Independent-Study Disclaimer
This practice examination is an independent study aid and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by the
International Council for Veterinary Assessment (ICVA) or any other testing organization. It is provided for
educational and self-assessment purposes only and is not a substitute for official NAVLE study materials or
veterinary professional guidance. Exam content, blueprints, and standards are subject to change; always consult
current ICVA and NAVLE resources.
, Section 1: Small Animal Medicine – Canine, Feline, Exotic Small Mammals
(30 questions)
Q1: A 7-year-old Boxer presents with a cough, exercise intolerance, and a 2/6 left apical systolic murmur.
Thoracic radiographs show left atrial enlargement and a dorsal elevation of the trachea. The most likely diagnosis
is:
A. Pulmonic stenosis
B. Pericardial effusion
C. Dilated cardiomyopathy
D. Mitral valve disease (chronic mitral insufficiency) [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Left apical systolic murmur with left atrial and mainstem bronchus dorsal displacement is classic
for chronic mitral valve disease. Pulmonic stenosis, pericardial effusion, and DCM present differently on
radiographs and auscultation.
Q2: The heartworm (Dirofilaria immitis) microfilaria screening test that detects circulating antigen is most
sensitive for detecting:
A. Immature L3 larvae
B. Microfilariae only
C. Adult female worms [CORRECT]
D. Males in the prepatent period
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Antigen tests detect adult female worms' antigen; they become positive after adult worms mature.
Microfilariae tests detect circulating microfilariae and may be negative with occult infections.
Q3: A cat presents with acute dyspnea, open-mouth breathing, and audible wheezing. Thoracic radiographs
show bronchial and peribronchial patterns with hyperinflation. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Feline asthma [CORRECT]
B. Congestive heart failure with pulmonary edema
C. Pleural effusion
D. Diaphragmatic hernia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acute dyspnea with wheezing and bronchial/hyperinflated lungs is classic for feline asthma. Heart
failure would show cardiomegaly and pulmonary edema, and effusion/hernia have distinct radiographic
findings.
Q4: A 5-year-old male neutered Dachshund presents with acute thoracolumbar pain and hindlimb paresis. Which
condition is most likely?
A. Polyarthritis
B. Intervertebral disc disease (IVDD) [CORRECT]
C. Lumbosacral stenosis
D. Ruptured cruciate ligament
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute pain and paresis in a chondrodystrophic breed like the Dachshund strongly suggests
intervertebral disc disease. Polyarthritis, lumbosacral stenosis, and cruciate disease do not match this acute
spinal presentation.
NAVLE Exam Practice - 2026/2027 Edition Page 2
, Q5: The most common cause of hyperthyroidism in cats is:
A. Follicular carcinoma
B. Benign adenomatous hyperplasia (thyroid adenoma) [CORRECT]
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Iatrogenic thyroxine excess
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Benign adenomatous hyperplasia is the overwhelming cause of feline hyperthyroidism.
Carcinomas and pituitary adenomas are rare, and iatrogenic excess is not a spontaneous cause.
Q6: A dog presents with polyuria/polydipsia, polyphagia, weight loss, and a persistently high blood glucose with
glucosuria. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Diabetes mellitus [CORRECT]
C. Chronic kidney disease
D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Persistent hyperglycemia with glucosuria, PU/PD, polyphagia, and weight loss is classic for
diabetes mellitus. Cushing's, CKD, and hyperthyroidism do not typically cause glucosuria.
Q7: Which organism is the most common cause of canine infectious tracheobronchitis (kennel cough)?
A. Leptospira interrogans
B. Bordetella bronchiseptica [CORRECT]
C. Ehrlichia canis
D. Dirofilaria immitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bordetella bronchiseptica is the primary bacterial agent of kennel cough, often with viral
co-infections. Leptospira, Ehrlichia, and Dirofilaria cause different syndromes.
Q8: A cat with chronic weight loss, inappetence, and vomiting is diagnosed with inflammatory bowel disease. The
definitive diagnosis is made by:
A. Response to a diet trial alone
B. Fecal culture
C. Abdominal ultrasound only
D. Intestinal biopsy (histopathology) [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Histopathology from intestinal biopsy is definitive for IBD. Diet trials and ultrasound are supportive
but not diagnostic.
NAVLE Exam Practice - 2026/2027 Edition Page 3
, Q9: A dog presents with a focal, raised, erythematous skin lesion on the ventral abdomen with an 'apple core'
appearance on cytology showing mast cells. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Histiocytoma
B. Lipoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Mast cell tumor [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mast cells on cytology with the characteristic gross lesion indicate a mast cell tumor.
Histiocytomas, lipomas, and SCC have different cytology.
Q10: Which test is most appropriate to confirm feline leukemia virus (FeLV) infection after a positive in-house test
in a sick cat?
A. CBC only
B. Confirmatory test (IFA or PCR) [CORRECT]
C. Retest with the same test alone
D. No confirmation is needed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A confirmatory test (IFA or PCR) is recommended to verify a positive in-house FeLV result,
especially in a sick cat, given the risk of false positives.
Q11: A hamster presents with a progressively enlarging, firm swelling on its cheek that is interfering with eating.
The most likely cause is:
A. Pouch impaction/abscess [CORRECT]
B. Lymphoma
C. Adenocarcinoma of the uterus
D. Dental malocclusion of incisors only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A cheek swelling interfering with eating in a hamster is most likely a pouch impaction or abscess.
The other options are less consistent with a cheek pouch mass.
Q12: A rabbit presents with anorexia, decreased fecal production, and bruxism. The most common underlying
problem is:
A. Gastrointestinal stasis (ileus) [CORRECT]
B. Uterine adenocarcinoma
C. Pasteurella rhinitis
D. Ear mites
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Anorexia with reduced fecal output and bruxism is classic for GI stasis in rabbits. Uterine
adenocarcinoma, rhinitis, and ear mites do not present this way.
NAVLE Exam Practice - 2026/2027 Edition Page 4
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE (2026/2027 EDITION)
200 Multiple-Choice Questions - Complete Practice Exam
Independent-Study Disclaimer
This practice examination is an independent study aid and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by the
International Council for Veterinary Assessment (ICVA) or any other testing organization. It is provided for
educational and self-assessment purposes only and is not a substitute for official NAVLE study materials or
veterinary professional guidance. Exam content, blueprints, and standards are subject to change; always consult
current ICVA and NAVLE resources.
, Section 1: Small Animal Medicine – Canine, Feline, Exotic Small Mammals
(30 questions)
Q1: A 7-year-old Boxer presents with a cough, exercise intolerance, and a 2/6 left apical systolic murmur.
Thoracic radiographs show left atrial enlargement and a dorsal elevation of the trachea. The most likely diagnosis
is:
A. Pulmonic stenosis
B. Pericardial effusion
C. Dilated cardiomyopathy
D. Mitral valve disease (chronic mitral insufficiency) [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Left apical systolic murmur with left atrial and mainstem bronchus dorsal displacement is classic
for chronic mitral valve disease. Pulmonic stenosis, pericardial effusion, and DCM present differently on
radiographs and auscultation.
Q2: The heartworm (Dirofilaria immitis) microfilaria screening test that detects circulating antigen is most
sensitive for detecting:
A. Immature L3 larvae
B. Microfilariae only
C. Adult female worms [CORRECT]
D. Males in the prepatent period
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Antigen tests detect adult female worms' antigen; they become positive after adult worms mature.
Microfilariae tests detect circulating microfilariae and may be negative with occult infections.
Q3: A cat presents with acute dyspnea, open-mouth breathing, and audible wheezing. Thoracic radiographs
show bronchial and peribronchial patterns with hyperinflation. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Feline asthma [CORRECT]
B. Congestive heart failure with pulmonary edema
C. Pleural effusion
D. Diaphragmatic hernia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acute dyspnea with wheezing and bronchial/hyperinflated lungs is classic for feline asthma. Heart
failure would show cardiomegaly and pulmonary edema, and effusion/hernia have distinct radiographic
findings.
Q4: A 5-year-old male neutered Dachshund presents with acute thoracolumbar pain and hindlimb paresis. Which
condition is most likely?
A. Polyarthritis
B. Intervertebral disc disease (IVDD) [CORRECT]
C. Lumbosacral stenosis
D. Ruptured cruciate ligament
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute pain and paresis in a chondrodystrophic breed like the Dachshund strongly suggests
intervertebral disc disease. Polyarthritis, lumbosacral stenosis, and cruciate disease do not match this acute
spinal presentation.
NAVLE Exam Practice - 2026/2027 Edition Page 2
, Q5: The most common cause of hyperthyroidism in cats is:
A. Follicular carcinoma
B. Benign adenomatous hyperplasia (thyroid adenoma) [CORRECT]
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Iatrogenic thyroxine excess
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Benign adenomatous hyperplasia is the overwhelming cause of feline hyperthyroidism.
Carcinomas and pituitary adenomas are rare, and iatrogenic excess is not a spontaneous cause.
Q6: A dog presents with polyuria/polydipsia, polyphagia, weight loss, and a persistently high blood glucose with
glucosuria. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Diabetes mellitus [CORRECT]
C. Chronic kidney disease
D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Persistent hyperglycemia with glucosuria, PU/PD, polyphagia, and weight loss is classic for
diabetes mellitus. Cushing's, CKD, and hyperthyroidism do not typically cause glucosuria.
Q7: Which organism is the most common cause of canine infectious tracheobronchitis (kennel cough)?
A. Leptospira interrogans
B. Bordetella bronchiseptica [CORRECT]
C. Ehrlichia canis
D. Dirofilaria immitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bordetella bronchiseptica is the primary bacterial agent of kennel cough, often with viral
co-infections. Leptospira, Ehrlichia, and Dirofilaria cause different syndromes.
Q8: A cat with chronic weight loss, inappetence, and vomiting is diagnosed with inflammatory bowel disease. The
definitive diagnosis is made by:
A. Response to a diet trial alone
B. Fecal culture
C. Abdominal ultrasound only
D. Intestinal biopsy (histopathology) [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Histopathology from intestinal biopsy is definitive for IBD. Diet trials and ultrasound are supportive
but not diagnostic.
NAVLE Exam Practice - 2026/2027 Edition Page 3
, Q9: A dog presents with a focal, raised, erythematous skin lesion on the ventral abdomen with an 'apple core'
appearance on cytology showing mast cells. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Histiocytoma
B. Lipoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Mast cell tumor [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mast cells on cytology with the characteristic gross lesion indicate a mast cell tumor.
Histiocytomas, lipomas, and SCC have different cytology.
Q10: Which test is most appropriate to confirm feline leukemia virus (FeLV) infection after a positive in-house test
in a sick cat?
A. CBC only
B. Confirmatory test (IFA or PCR) [CORRECT]
C. Retest with the same test alone
D. No confirmation is needed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A confirmatory test (IFA or PCR) is recommended to verify a positive in-house FeLV result,
especially in a sick cat, given the risk of false positives.
Q11: A hamster presents with a progressively enlarging, firm swelling on its cheek that is interfering with eating.
The most likely cause is:
A. Pouch impaction/abscess [CORRECT]
B. Lymphoma
C. Adenocarcinoma of the uterus
D. Dental malocclusion of incisors only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A cheek swelling interfering with eating in a hamster is most likely a pouch impaction or abscess.
The other options are less consistent with a cheek pouch mass.
Q12: A rabbit presents with anorexia, decreased fecal production, and bruxism. The most common underlying
problem is:
A. Gastrointestinal stasis (ileus) [CORRECT]
B. Uterine adenocarcinoma
C. Pasteurella rhinitis
D. Ear mites
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Anorexia with reduced fecal output and bruxism is classic for GI stasis in rabbits. Uterine
adenocarcinoma, rhinitis, and ear mites do not present this way.
NAVLE Exam Practice - 2026/2027 Edition Page 4
