NURSING LICENSURE
NUR 555 QUIZ 5 | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2026/2027
UPDATE | WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS - SNHU
A+
Complete Blueprint Coverage
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED EXAM DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Cardiovascular Pathophysiology
Respiratory Pathophysiology
Endocrine & Metabolic Pathophysiology
Renal, Fluid & Electrolyte Pathophysiology
Neurologic, Immune & Multisystem Pathophysiology
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
,
, NUR 555 QUIZ 5 | 2026/2027 UPDATE | SNHU STUVIAACTUALEXAM
CARDIOVASCULAR PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Q1.
A 68-year-old man with longstanding hypertension presents with progressive dyspnea, orthopnea, and bilateral
ankle edema. Echocardiography reveals left ventricular hypertrophy with an ejection fraction of 35% and elevated
left ventricular end-diastolic pressure. The nurse practitioner recognizes that the primary pathophysiologic
mechanism driving the reduced ejection fraction in this patient is:
A. Impaired diastolic filling secondary to concentric hypertrophy alone
B. Myocyte loss and ventricular remodeling leading to systolic dysfunction
C. Acute coronary plaque rupture causing regional wall motion abnormality
D. Isolated right ventricular pressure overload from pulmonary hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Chronic pressure overload from hypertension produces concentric hypertrophy that eventually transitions to eccentric remodeling,
myocyte dropout, and impaired contractility, resulting in reduced ejection fraction. Pure diastolic dysfunction would preserve ejection
fraction; acute plaque rupture and isolated right-sided overload do not explain the global reduction in EF seen here.
Q2.
A 54-year-old woman develops sudden severe chest pain radiating to the back, accompanied by a blood pressure
differential of 30 mm Hg between the arms. CT angiography confirms a type A aortic dissection. The
pathophysiologic event that most directly precipitates this presentation is:
A. Progressive atherosclerotic plaque expansion narrowing the aortic lumen
B. Intimal tear allowing blood to enter and split the aortic media
C. Vasculitic inflammation causing full-thickness aortic wall necrosis
D. Acute thrombosis of the left main coronary artery extending into the aorta
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Aortic dissection begins with an intimal tear that permits blood under pressure to enter and dissect the media, creating a false lumen.
Atherosclerotic narrowing, vasculitis, and coronary thrombosis produce different clinical pictures and imaging findings.
NUR 555 QUIZ 5 | QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2026/2027
UPDATE | WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS - SNHU
A+
Complete Blueprint Coverage
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED EXAM DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Cardiovascular Pathophysiology
Respiratory Pathophysiology
Endocrine & Metabolic Pathophysiology
Renal, Fluid & Electrolyte Pathophysiology
Neurologic, Immune & Multisystem Pathophysiology
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
,
, NUR 555 QUIZ 5 | 2026/2027 UPDATE | SNHU STUVIAACTUALEXAM
CARDIOVASCULAR PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Q1.
A 68-year-old man with longstanding hypertension presents with progressive dyspnea, orthopnea, and bilateral
ankle edema. Echocardiography reveals left ventricular hypertrophy with an ejection fraction of 35% and elevated
left ventricular end-diastolic pressure. The nurse practitioner recognizes that the primary pathophysiologic
mechanism driving the reduced ejection fraction in this patient is:
A. Impaired diastolic filling secondary to concentric hypertrophy alone
B. Myocyte loss and ventricular remodeling leading to systolic dysfunction
C. Acute coronary plaque rupture causing regional wall motion abnormality
D. Isolated right ventricular pressure overload from pulmonary hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Chronic pressure overload from hypertension produces concentric hypertrophy that eventually transitions to eccentric remodeling,
myocyte dropout, and impaired contractility, resulting in reduced ejection fraction. Pure diastolic dysfunction would preserve ejection
fraction; acute plaque rupture and isolated right-sided overload do not explain the global reduction in EF seen here.
Q2.
A 54-year-old woman develops sudden severe chest pain radiating to the back, accompanied by a blood pressure
differential of 30 mm Hg between the arms. CT angiography confirms a type A aortic dissection. The
pathophysiologic event that most directly precipitates this presentation is:
A. Progressive atherosclerotic plaque expansion narrowing the aortic lumen
B. Intimal tear allowing blood to enter and split the aortic media
C. Vasculitic inflammation causing full-thickness aortic wall necrosis
D. Acute thrombosis of the left main coronary artery extending into the aorta
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Aortic dissection begins with an intimal tear that permits blood under pressure to enter and dissect the media, creating a false lumen.
Atherosclerotic narrowing, vasculitis, and coronary thrombosis produce different clinical pictures and imaging findings.
