NURSING LICENSURE
2026/2027 HESI EXIT RN V1 EXAM REAL [NEW All 160 Qs & As
Included - Guaranteed Pass A+!!! (All Brand New Q&A Pics Included)
2026/2027
A+
Complete Domain Coverage | Verified Answers with Rationales
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CLIENT NEED CATEGORIES RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
1. Fundamentals, Safety, Infection Control, and Basic Care
2. Medical-Surgical Nursing and Pharmacology
3. Maternity, Newborn, and Pediatric Nursing
4. Mental Health, Community, and Leadership/Management
5. Critical Care, Complex Scenarios, and Clinical Judgment
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
,HESI EXIT RN V1 2026/2027 Page 2
SECTION 1: Fundamentals, Safety, Infection Control, and Basic Care
Q1
A client receiving packed RBCs develops chills, back pain, and hypotension 15 minutes into the transfusion. The nurse stops the transfusion and keeps the
IV open with normal saline. What is the priority next action?
A. Notify the provider and the blood bank, and prepare to treat the reaction
B. Restart the same unit at a slower rate after 30 minutes
C. Administer an antipyretic and continue the transfusion
D. Document the reaction and complete the remaining volume
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Stopping the transfusion and maintaining IV access are immediate. Provider and blood bank notification and supportive care follow. Restarting the same unit is never appropriate.
Q2
During tracheostomy suctioning a client develops bradycardia and desaturation. The nurse stops suctioning and hyperoxygenates. What is the most likely
cause of the bradycardia?
A. Vagal stimulation from the suction catheter
B. Anxiety related to the procedure
C. Hypercapnia from inadequate ventilation
D. Medication side effect from recent analgesics
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Suctioning can stimulate the vagus nerve producing bradycardia. Stopping and hyperoxygenating are the correct immediate interventions.
Q3
A TPN bag is due to be changed but the new bag has not arrived. What is the most appropriate temporary action?
A. Hang 10 percent dextrose until the TPN arrives to prevent hypoglycemia
B. Stop the infusion and flush with saline until the new bag arrives
C. Increase the rate of the current bag to finish it sooner
D. Discontinue the central line and restart later peripherally
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Abrupt cessation of TPN risks hypoglycemia. 10 percent dextrose maintains glucose delivery until the TPN bag is available.
Q4
A client asks why clear liquids are required the day before a colonoscopy. What is the best response?
A. Clear liquids leave minimal residue so the colon can be visualized
B. Clear liquids prevent all dehydration during bowel prep
C. Clear liquids are required only if the client is constipated
D. Clear liquids reduce bleeding risk during the procedure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Minimal residual material allows optimal mucosal visualization. Dehydration is managed separately with oral rehydration solutions.
Q5
A Stage 3 sacral pressure injury contains yellow slough and moderate serosanguineous drainage. Which dressing is most appropriate?
A. Hydrocolloid or foam that maintains moisture and manages moderate exudate
B. Dry sterile gauze changed every 4 hours
C. Transparent film alone over the entire wound
D. Wet-to-dry saline gauze for mechanical debridement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Moist wound healing with appropriate exudate management supports autolytic debridement. Wet-to-dry is generally avoided in modern practice.
Q6
While inserting a urinary catheter the nurse contaminates a sterile glove on the bed sheet. What is the correct action?
A. Obtain a new sterile kit and restart with new sterile gloves
B. Continue carefully avoiding further contamination
C. Rinse the glove with sterile saline from the kit and proceed
D. Ask UAP to finish the catheterization
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Any break in sterile technique requires starting over with a new sterile kit to prevent urinary tract infection.
Q7
A continuous tube feeding residual is 180 mL; the ordered hold threshold is 200 mL. What should the nurse do?
A. Return the residual and proceed with the feeding while monitoring
B. Discard the residual and hold the feeding for 4 hours
C. Increase the feeding rate to catch up
D. Place the client supine to improve absorption
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Residuals below threshold are returned and feeding continues with ongoing assessment for tolerance.
2026/2027 HESI EXIT RN V1 EXAM REAL [NEW All 160 Qs & As Included - Guaranteed Pass A+!!! (All
, HESI EXIT RN V1 2026/2027 Page 3
Q8
A Jackson-Pratt drain bulb is fully expanded. What is the priority action?
A. Empty the bulb, record output, and recompress to re-establish suction
B. Leave the bulb expanded for gravity drainage only
C. Irrigate the drain with sterile saline
D. Advance the drain 2 cm
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Closed-suction drains require compression of the bulb to create negative pressure. An expanded bulb provides no suction.
Q9
A client with a new colostomy asks which foods are most likely to cause odor. What is the best response?
A. Eggs, fish, garlic, onions, and some strong cheeses are common odor producers
B. All high-fiber foods cause odor and must be avoided permanently
C. Odor is caused only by medications and is unrelated to diet
D. Dairy products are the primary odor source for every client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Certain foods are known odor producers; clients learn to identify personal triggers rather than eliminate entire food groups.
Q10
For a viscous IM medication in a well-developed adult at the ventrogluteal site, which needle is most appropriate?
A. 1.5-inch, 21- to 22-gauge needle
B. 0.5-inch, 27-gauge needle
C. 3-inch, 18-gauge needle
D. 1-inch, 25-gauge needle
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A 1.5-inch 21-22 gauge needle provides adequate muscle penetration for viscous medication in an average adult.
Q11
A dehydrated client has serum sodium 150 mEq/L. Which IV fluid is most appropriate initially?
A. 0.9 percent sodium chloride for volume restoration
B. 3 percent sodium chloride to further raise sodium
C. D5W alone as the primary fluid
D. Lactated Ringer without considering sodium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Volume depletion with hypernatremia is first treated with isotonic saline; free-water replacement follows once volume is restored.
Q12
A postoperative client asks why sequential compression devices are needed. What is the best explanation?
A. They promote venous return and help prevent deep vein thrombosis
B. They replace the need for any anticoagulant medication
C. They are used only to reduce leg swelling
D. They prevent pneumonia by improving lung circulation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
SCDs reduce venous stasis and lower DVT risk; they are adjunctive to pharmacologic prophylaxis when indicated.
Q13
A central line site shows redness and purulent drainage. What is the priority action?
A. Culture if ordered, cleanse, redress sterilely, and notify the provider
B. Ignore mild redness as expected around all central lines
C. Remove the line immediately without provider notification
D. Apply antibiotic ointment and leave the site open
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Local infection signs require culture, sterile care, and prompt provider notification for possible line removal.
Q14
A continuous heparin infusion has an aPTT of 110 seconds (control 30). Protocol calls for holding elevated values. What is the next action?
A. Hold the infusion per protocol, notify the provider, and recheck aPTT as directed
B. Increase the heparin rate to reach a higher range
C. Administer a heparin bolus to correct the value
D. Continue the current rate and recheck in 24 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
An aPTT more than 2.5-3 times control increases bleeding risk; the infusion is held according to the nomogram.
2026/2027 HESI EXIT RN V1 EXAM REAL [NEW All 160 Qs & As Included - Guaranteed Pass A+!!! (All
2026/2027 HESI EXIT RN V1 EXAM REAL [NEW All 160 Qs & As
Included - Guaranteed Pass A+!!! (All Brand New Q&A Pics Included)
2026/2027
A+
Complete Domain Coverage | Verified Answers with Rationales
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CLIENT NEED CATEGORIES RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
1. Fundamentals, Safety, Infection Control, and Basic Care
2. Medical-Surgical Nursing and Pharmacology
3. Maternity, Newborn, and Pediatric Nursing
4. Mental Health, Community, and Leadership/Management
5. Critical Care, Complex Scenarios, and Clinical Judgment
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
,HESI EXIT RN V1 2026/2027 Page 2
SECTION 1: Fundamentals, Safety, Infection Control, and Basic Care
Q1
A client receiving packed RBCs develops chills, back pain, and hypotension 15 minutes into the transfusion. The nurse stops the transfusion and keeps the
IV open with normal saline. What is the priority next action?
A. Notify the provider and the blood bank, and prepare to treat the reaction
B. Restart the same unit at a slower rate after 30 minutes
C. Administer an antipyretic and continue the transfusion
D. Document the reaction and complete the remaining volume
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Stopping the transfusion and maintaining IV access are immediate. Provider and blood bank notification and supportive care follow. Restarting the same unit is never appropriate.
Q2
During tracheostomy suctioning a client develops bradycardia and desaturation. The nurse stops suctioning and hyperoxygenates. What is the most likely
cause of the bradycardia?
A. Vagal stimulation from the suction catheter
B. Anxiety related to the procedure
C. Hypercapnia from inadequate ventilation
D. Medication side effect from recent analgesics
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Suctioning can stimulate the vagus nerve producing bradycardia. Stopping and hyperoxygenating are the correct immediate interventions.
Q3
A TPN bag is due to be changed but the new bag has not arrived. What is the most appropriate temporary action?
A. Hang 10 percent dextrose until the TPN arrives to prevent hypoglycemia
B. Stop the infusion and flush with saline until the new bag arrives
C. Increase the rate of the current bag to finish it sooner
D. Discontinue the central line and restart later peripherally
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Abrupt cessation of TPN risks hypoglycemia. 10 percent dextrose maintains glucose delivery until the TPN bag is available.
Q4
A client asks why clear liquids are required the day before a colonoscopy. What is the best response?
A. Clear liquids leave minimal residue so the colon can be visualized
B. Clear liquids prevent all dehydration during bowel prep
C. Clear liquids are required only if the client is constipated
D. Clear liquids reduce bleeding risk during the procedure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Minimal residual material allows optimal mucosal visualization. Dehydration is managed separately with oral rehydration solutions.
Q5
A Stage 3 sacral pressure injury contains yellow slough and moderate serosanguineous drainage. Which dressing is most appropriate?
A. Hydrocolloid or foam that maintains moisture and manages moderate exudate
B. Dry sterile gauze changed every 4 hours
C. Transparent film alone over the entire wound
D. Wet-to-dry saline gauze for mechanical debridement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Moist wound healing with appropriate exudate management supports autolytic debridement. Wet-to-dry is generally avoided in modern practice.
Q6
While inserting a urinary catheter the nurse contaminates a sterile glove on the bed sheet. What is the correct action?
A. Obtain a new sterile kit and restart with new sterile gloves
B. Continue carefully avoiding further contamination
C. Rinse the glove with sterile saline from the kit and proceed
D. Ask UAP to finish the catheterization
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Any break in sterile technique requires starting over with a new sterile kit to prevent urinary tract infection.
Q7
A continuous tube feeding residual is 180 mL; the ordered hold threshold is 200 mL. What should the nurse do?
A. Return the residual and proceed with the feeding while monitoring
B. Discard the residual and hold the feeding for 4 hours
C. Increase the feeding rate to catch up
D. Place the client supine to improve absorption
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Residuals below threshold are returned and feeding continues with ongoing assessment for tolerance.
2026/2027 HESI EXIT RN V1 EXAM REAL [NEW All 160 Qs & As Included - Guaranteed Pass A+!!! (All
, HESI EXIT RN V1 2026/2027 Page 3
Q8
A Jackson-Pratt drain bulb is fully expanded. What is the priority action?
A. Empty the bulb, record output, and recompress to re-establish suction
B. Leave the bulb expanded for gravity drainage only
C. Irrigate the drain with sterile saline
D. Advance the drain 2 cm
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Closed-suction drains require compression of the bulb to create negative pressure. An expanded bulb provides no suction.
Q9
A client with a new colostomy asks which foods are most likely to cause odor. What is the best response?
A. Eggs, fish, garlic, onions, and some strong cheeses are common odor producers
B. All high-fiber foods cause odor and must be avoided permanently
C. Odor is caused only by medications and is unrelated to diet
D. Dairy products are the primary odor source for every client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Certain foods are known odor producers; clients learn to identify personal triggers rather than eliminate entire food groups.
Q10
For a viscous IM medication in a well-developed adult at the ventrogluteal site, which needle is most appropriate?
A. 1.5-inch, 21- to 22-gauge needle
B. 0.5-inch, 27-gauge needle
C. 3-inch, 18-gauge needle
D. 1-inch, 25-gauge needle
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A 1.5-inch 21-22 gauge needle provides adequate muscle penetration for viscous medication in an average adult.
Q11
A dehydrated client has serum sodium 150 mEq/L. Which IV fluid is most appropriate initially?
A. 0.9 percent sodium chloride for volume restoration
B. 3 percent sodium chloride to further raise sodium
C. D5W alone as the primary fluid
D. Lactated Ringer without considering sodium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Volume depletion with hypernatremia is first treated with isotonic saline; free-water replacement follows once volume is restored.
Q12
A postoperative client asks why sequential compression devices are needed. What is the best explanation?
A. They promote venous return and help prevent deep vein thrombosis
B. They replace the need for any anticoagulant medication
C. They are used only to reduce leg swelling
D. They prevent pneumonia by improving lung circulation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
SCDs reduce venous stasis and lower DVT risk; they are adjunctive to pharmacologic prophylaxis when indicated.
Q13
A central line site shows redness and purulent drainage. What is the priority action?
A. Culture if ordered, cleanse, redress sterilely, and notify the provider
B. Ignore mild redness as expected around all central lines
C. Remove the line immediately without provider notification
D. Apply antibiotic ointment and leave the site open
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Local infection signs require culture, sterile care, and prompt provider notification for possible line removal.
Q14
A continuous heparin infusion has an aPTT of 110 seconds (control 30). Protocol calls for holding elevated values. What is the next action?
A. Hold the infusion per protocol, notify the provider, and recheck aPTT as directed
B. Increase the heparin rate to reach a higher range
C. Administer a heparin bolus to correct the value
D. Continue the current rate and recheck in 24 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
An aPTT more than 2.5-3 times control increases bleeding risk; the infusion is held according to the nomogram.
2026/2027 HESI EXIT RN V1 EXAM REAL [NEW All 160 Qs & As Included - Guaranteed Pass A+!!! (All
