PHTLS PRE & POST TEST, ATLS EXAM WITH
ANSWERS GRADED A+ FINAL 2023
The displacement of tissue away from the path of a projectile, both
temporarily and permanently, is known as:
A. Conization
B. Cavitation
C. Crepitation
D. Contusion - ANSWER- B. Cavitation
The single most important factor in determining the potential for injury
due to energy exchange is:
A. Mass of the bodies involved
B. Velocity of the bodies involved
C. Density of the tissues involved
D. Surface area of the impact involved - ANSWER- B. Velocity of
the bodies involved
In the management of shock, isotonic crystalloid solutions, such as
Ringer's, are preferred because:
A. The protein molecules in crystalloid solutions act as volume expanders
B. These fluids draw interstitial fluid into the vascular space to enhance
volume
C. These solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water
solutions, such as D5W
D. Their pH enhance oxygen delivery to the tissues - ANSWER- C. These
solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions, such
as D5W
With respect to the distance of a fall, which of the following is a guideline
for determining a critical fall?
A. 3 times the height of the patient
B. 2 times the height of the patient
C. 5 times the height of the patient
D. 1 ½ times the height of the patient - ANSWER- A. 3 times the
height of the patient
The phase of an explosion, or blast, in which hollow organs are
squeezed
PHTLS PRE &and
POSTmay
TEST,rupture is called
ATLS EXAM the phase.
WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+ FINAL 2023
Page 1
,A. Tertiary phase
B. Quaternary phase
C. Secondary phase
D. Primary phase - ANSWER- D. Primary phase
During the primary survey and management of a trauma patient, the E
in ABCDE stands for ?
A. Edema
B. Eyes & ears
C. Expose/Environment
D. Electrical therapy - ANSWER- C. Expose/Environment
The time in which surgical intervention can make a difference in patient
outcome is the ?
A. Golden period
B. Golden time
C. Golden era
D. Golden minutes - ANSWER- A. Golden period (hour)
In the absence of extenuating circumstances, the maximum amount of
time it should take to identify and manage immediate threats to life,
prepare the patient for transport and begin transport is ?
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes - ANSWER-B. 10 minutes
In which of the following situations is the use of a short spinal
immobilization device indicated?
A. 28 year old male, unrestrained driver in a frontal impact crash.
Awake, asks repeatedly what happened, complains of a headache,
has a hematoma on his forehead. BP 122/84, HR 92, VR 20.
B. 40 year old female who was pushed down a flight of stairs and is
lying prone on the landing between two flights of stairs, complaining of
back pain. BP 118/78, HR 100, VR 20.
C. 17 year old female, restrained driver in a frontal impact crash. Awake,
pale and diaphoretic, complains of upper right quadrant abdominal pain.
BP 100/70, HR 108, VR 20. D. None of the above - ANSWER- D. None
of the above
Your patient is a 32 year old man, restrained driver of a vehicle that has
been involved in a frontal impact with a concrete bridge abutment. The
patient is awake, but has difficulty answering questions due to shortness
of breath. His ventilatory rate is 30 per minute. Of the following choices,
PHTLS PRE & POST TEST, ATLS EXAM WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+ FINAL 2023
Page 2
,when is the first time the patient's breath sounds should be checked?
PHTLS PRE & POST TEST, ATLS EXAM WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+ FINAL 2023
Page 3
, A. As soon as he is removed from the vehicle
B. Prior to being removed from the vehicle
C. As soon as he is immobilized on a long backboard
D. Enroute to the trauma center - ANSWER- B. Prior to being
removed from the vehicle
Which of the following represents adequate spontaneous ventilation in an
adult?
A. Tidal volume 100 mL, ventilatory rate 40/minute
B. Tidal volume 500 mL, ventilatory rate 8/minute
C. Tidal volume 300 mL, ventilatory rate 16/minute
D. Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute - ANSWER- D.
Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute
Which of the following is 100% accurate in verifying endotracheal tube
placement?
A. Pulse oximetry
B. End-tidal capnometry
C. Syringe aspiration
D. None of the above - ANSWER- D. None of the above (added info by
ang: to
verify you need breath sounds, condensation in the tube and a
confirmatory CXR)
When utilizing percutaneous transtracheal ventilation, the correct ration
of lung inflation to lung inflation time, in seconds, is:
A. 1:4
B. 1:5
C. 1:2
D. 2:2 - ANSWER- A. 1:4
Which of the following is a possible complication of using a manually
triggered oxygen powered device for ventilation?
A. Gastric distention
B. Pneumothorax
C. Inability to feel lung compliance
D. All of the above - ANSWER- D. All of the above
Which of the following procedures is considered an essential airway skill?
A. Needle cricothyroidotomy
B. Endotracheal intubation
C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway
D. Retrograde endotracheal intubation - ANSWER- C.
PHTLS PRE & POST TEST, ATLS EXAM WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+ FINAL 2023
Page 4
ANSWERS GRADED A+ FINAL 2023
The displacement of tissue away from the path of a projectile, both
temporarily and permanently, is known as:
A. Conization
B. Cavitation
C. Crepitation
D. Contusion - ANSWER- B. Cavitation
The single most important factor in determining the potential for injury
due to energy exchange is:
A. Mass of the bodies involved
B. Velocity of the bodies involved
C. Density of the tissues involved
D. Surface area of the impact involved - ANSWER- B. Velocity of
the bodies involved
In the management of shock, isotonic crystalloid solutions, such as
Ringer's, are preferred because:
A. The protein molecules in crystalloid solutions act as volume expanders
B. These fluids draw interstitial fluid into the vascular space to enhance
volume
C. These solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water
solutions, such as D5W
D. Their pH enhance oxygen delivery to the tissues - ANSWER- C. These
solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions, such
as D5W
With respect to the distance of a fall, which of the following is a guideline
for determining a critical fall?
A. 3 times the height of the patient
B. 2 times the height of the patient
C. 5 times the height of the patient
D. 1 ½ times the height of the patient - ANSWER- A. 3 times the
height of the patient
The phase of an explosion, or blast, in which hollow organs are
squeezed
PHTLS PRE &and
POSTmay
TEST,rupture is called
ATLS EXAM the phase.
WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+ FINAL 2023
Page 1
,A. Tertiary phase
B. Quaternary phase
C. Secondary phase
D. Primary phase - ANSWER- D. Primary phase
During the primary survey and management of a trauma patient, the E
in ABCDE stands for ?
A. Edema
B. Eyes & ears
C. Expose/Environment
D. Electrical therapy - ANSWER- C. Expose/Environment
The time in which surgical intervention can make a difference in patient
outcome is the ?
A. Golden period
B. Golden time
C. Golden era
D. Golden minutes - ANSWER- A. Golden period (hour)
In the absence of extenuating circumstances, the maximum amount of
time it should take to identify and manage immediate threats to life,
prepare the patient for transport and begin transport is ?
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes - ANSWER-B. 10 minutes
In which of the following situations is the use of a short spinal
immobilization device indicated?
A. 28 year old male, unrestrained driver in a frontal impact crash.
Awake, asks repeatedly what happened, complains of a headache,
has a hematoma on his forehead. BP 122/84, HR 92, VR 20.
B. 40 year old female who was pushed down a flight of stairs and is
lying prone on the landing between two flights of stairs, complaining of
back pain. BP 118/78, HR 100, VR 20.
C. 17 year old female, restrained driver in a frontal impact crash. Awake,
pale and diaphoretic, complains of upper right quadrant abdominal pain.
BP 100/70, HR 108, VR 20. D. None of the above - ANSWER- D. None
of the above
Your patient is a 32 year old man, restrained driver of a vehicle that has
been involved in a frontal impact with a concrete bridge abutment. The
patient is awake, but has difficulty answering questions due to shortness
of breath. His ventilatory rate is 30 per minute. Of the following choices,
PHTLS PRE & POST TEST, ATLS EXAM WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+ FINAL 2023
Page 2
,when is the first time the patient's breath sounds should be checked?
PHTLS PRE & POST TEST, ATLS EXAM WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+ FINAL 2023
Page 3
, A. As soon as he is removed from the vehicle
B. Prior to being removed from the vehicle
C. As soon as he is immobilized on a long backboard
D. Enroute to the trauma center - ANSWER- B. Prior to being
removed from the vehicle
Which of the following represents adequate spontaneous ventilation in an
adult?
A. Tidal volume 100 mL, ventilatory rate 40/minute
B. Tidal volume 500 mL, ventilatory rate 8/minute
C. Tidal volume 300 mL, ventilatory rate 16/minute
D. Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute - ANSWER- D.
Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute
Which of the following is 100% accurate in verifying endotracheal tube
placement?
A. Pulse oximetry
B. End-tidal capnometry
C. Syringe aspiration
D. None of the above - ANSWER- D. None of the above (added info by
ang: to
verify you need breath sounds, condensation in the tube and a
confirmatory CXR)
When utilizing percutaneous transtracheal ventilation, the correct ration
of lung inflation to lung inflation time, in seconds, is:
A. 1:4
B. 1:5
C. 1:2
D. 2:2 - ANSWER- A. 1:4
Which of the following is a possible complication of using a manually
triggered oxygen powered device for ventilation?
A. Gastric distention
B. Pneumothorax
C. Inability to feel lung compliance
D. All of the above - ANSWER- D. All of the above
Which of the following procedures is considered an essential airway skill?
A. Needle cricothyroidotomy
B. Endotracheal intubation
C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway
D. Retrograde endotracheal intubation - ANSWER- C.
PHTLS PRE & POST TEST, ATLS EXAM WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+ FINAL 2023
Page 4
