UT Arlington NURS 5434 Family III Final Exam (pdf) | 2026/2027 |
FNP III Q&A | Nursing
1. A 28-year-old G2P1 at 32 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright
red vaginal bleeding. The uterus is soft and non-tender. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A) Placental abruption
B) Placenta previa
C) Preterm labor
D) Vasa previa
Correct Answer: Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright red
vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. The uterus is soft and non-tender. In
contrast, placental abruption presents with painful dark red bleeding, uterine
tenderness, and hypertonicity.
2. A pregnant patient at 28 weeks gestation has a fundal height of 24 cm.
What is the most appropriate next step?
A) Reassure the patient and schedule a routine follow-up
B) Order an ultrasound to evaluate fetal growth
C) Order a non-stress test
D) Admit the patient for immediate delivery
Correct Answer: Order an ultrasound to evaluate fetal growth
Rationale: Fundal height in centimeters should approximately equal
gestational age in weeks between 20 and 36 weeks. A discrepancy of more
than 3 cm warrants ultrasound evaluation for intrauterine growth restriction,
oligohydramnios, or inaccurate dating.
3. A 35-year-old G3P2 at 16 weeks gestation has an abnormal quad screen
showing an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Which of the following is the
most appropriate next step?
A) Repeat the quad screen in 2 weeks
,B) Order a fetal ultrasound to evaluate for neural tube defects
C) Refer for genetic counseling and amniocentesis
D) Reassure the patient that this is a normal variant
Correct Answer: Order a fetal ultrasound to evaluate for neural tube defects
Rationale: An elevated maternal serum AFP is a screening marker for neural
tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly. The next step is a high-
resolution ultrasound to evaluate the fetal anatomy.
4. A 25-year-old female presents requesting a highly reliable contraceptive
method. She has a history of migraines with aura and smokes 10 cigarettes
daily. Which method is absolutely contraindicated?
A) Copper intrauterine device
B) Etonogestrel implant
C) Combined oral contraceptive pill
D) Levonorgestrel intrauterine system
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Rationale: Combined hormonal contraceptives are contraindicated in patients
with migraines with aura due to an increased risk of ischemic stroke.
Progestin-only methods (implant, IUD) are safe alternatives.
5. According to the USPSTF, at what age should routine cervical cancer
screening (Pap smear) begin in average-risk women?
A) Age 18
B) Age 21
C) Age 25
D) Age 30
Correct Answer: Age 21
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for cervical cancer every 3
years with cervical cytology alone in women aged 21 to 29 years. Screening
is not recommended for women under age 21.
,6. A patient ages 30-65 years old should get a Pap smear and HPV test how
often?
A) Every 3 years
B) Every 5 years
C) Every 6 months
D) Every 10 years
Correct Answer: Every 5 years
Rationale: For women aged 30 to 65 years, the USPSTF recommends
screening every 5 years with a combination of cytology and high-risk HPV
testing (co-testing).
7. According to the USPSTF, at what age should routine screening for
colorectal cancer begin in average-risk adults?
A) Age 35
B) Age 45
C) Age 50
D) Age 65
Correct Answer: Age 45
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for colorectal cancer in all
adults aged 45 to 75 years. The previous recommendation of starting at age
50 was updated to age 45 in 2021.
8. A 50-year-old asymptomatic female with no significant medical history
presents for a routine preventive visit. She has a first-degree relative
diagnosed with colorectal cancer at age 60. Which screening
recommendation is most appropriate?
A) Begin screening at age 45 with colonoscopy every 10 years
B) Begin screening at age 40 with colonoscopy every 5 years
C) Begin screening at age 50 with fecal immunochemical test (FIT) annually
, D) Begin screening now with a one-time colonoscopy
Correct Answer: Begin screening at age 40 with colonoscopy every 5 years
Rationale: For high-risk individuals with one first-degree relative with
colorectal cancer diagnosed at age < 60, guidelines recommend initiating
screening at age 40 or 10 years before the earliest diagnosis in the family,
whichever is earlier, and repeating colonoscopy every 5 years.
9. According to the USPSTF, which of the following is a Grade A
recommendation for cardiovascular disease prevention?
A) Aspirin for primary prevention in adults aged 50-59 with a 10-year risk
>10%
B) Statin therapy for primary prevention in adults aged 40-75 with one or
more risk factors and a 10-year risk of 10% or greater
C) Vitamin E supplementation for cardiovascular disease prevention
D) Beta-carotene supplementation for cardiovascular disease prevention
Correct Answer: Statin therapy for primary prevention in adults aged 40-75
with one or more risk factors and a 10-year risk of 10% or greater
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends statin therapy for primary prevention of
cardiovascular disease in adults aged 40 to 75 with one or more
cardiovascular risk factors and a calculated 10-year risk of 10% or greater
(Grade A recommendation).
10. In the USPSTF grading system, which grades are recommended to do?
A) Grade A and Grade B
B) Grade A, Grade B, and Grade C
C) Grade A only
D) Grade A, Grade B, Grade C, and Grade D
Correct Answer: Grade A and Grade B
Rationale: The USPSTF assigns letter grades to recommendations based on
the strength of the evidence. Grade A and Grade B recommendations are
recommended to be offered or provided.
FNP III Q&A | Nursing
1. A 28-year-old G2P1 at 32 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright
red vaginal bleeding. The uterus is soft and non-tender. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A) Placental abruption
B) Placenta previa
C) Preterm labor
D) Vasa previa
Correct Answer: Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright red
vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. The uterus is soft and non-tender. In
contrast, placental abruption presents with painful dark red bleeding, uterine
tenderness, and hypertonicity.
2. A pregnant patient at 28 weeks gestation has a fundal height of 24 cm.
What is the most appropriate next step?
A) Reassure the patient and schedule a routine follow-up
B) Order an ultrasound to evaluate fetal growth
C) Order a non-stress test
D) Admit the patient for immediate delivery
Correct Answer: Order an ultrasound to evaluate fetal growth
Rationale: Fundal height in centimeters should approximately equal
gestational age in weeks between 20 and 36 weeks. A discrepancy of more
than 3 cm warrants ultrasound evaluation for intrauterine growth restriction,
oligohydramnios, or inaccurate dating.
3. A 35-year-old G3P2 at 16 weeks gestation has an abnormal quad screen
showing an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Which of the following is the
most appropriate next step?
A) Repeat the quad screen in 2 weeks
,B) Order a fetal ultrasound to evaluate for neural tube defects
C) Refer for genetic counseling and amniocentesis
D) Reassure the patient that this is a normal variant
Correct Answer: Order a fetal ultrasound to evaluate for neural tube defects
Rationale: An elevated maternal serum AFP is a screening marker for neural
tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly. The next step is a high-
resolution ultrasound to evaluate the fetal anatomy.
4. A 25-year-old female presents requesting a highly reliable contraceptive
method. She has a history of migraines with aura and smokes 10 cigarettes
daily. Which method is absolutely contraindicated?
A) Copper intrauterine device
B) Etonogestrel implant
C) Combined oral contraceptive pill
D) Levonorgestrel intrauterine system
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Rationale: Combined hormonal contraceptives are contraindicated in patients
with migraines with aura due to an increased risk of ischemic stroke.
Progestin-only methods (implant, IUD) are safe alternatives.
5. According to the USPSTF, at what age should routine cervical cancer
screening (Pap smear) begin in average-risk women?
A) Age 18
B) Age 21
C) Age 25
D) Age 30
Correct Answer: Age 21
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for cervical cancer every 3
years with cervical cytology alone in women aged 21 to 29 years. Screening
is not recommended for women under age 21.
,6. A patient ages 30-65 years old should get a Pap smear and HPV test how
often?
A) Every 3 years
B) Every 5 years
C) Every 6 months
D) Every 10 years
Correct Answer: Every 5 years
Rationale: For women aged 30 to 65 years, the USPSTF recommends
screening every 5 years with a combination of cytology and high-risk HPV
testing (co-testing).
7. According to the USPSTF, at what age should routine screening for
colorectal cancer begin in average-risk adults?
A) Age 35
B) Age 45
C) Age 50
D) Age 65
Correct Answer: Age 45
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for colorectal cancer in all
adults aged 45 to 75 years. The previous recommendation of starting at age
50 was updated to age 45 in 2021.
8. A 50-year-old asymptomatic female with no significant medical history
presents for a routine preventive visit. She has a first-degree relative
diagnosed with colorectal cancer at age 60. Which screening
recommendation is most appropriate?
A) Begin screening at age 45 with colonoscopy every 10 years
B) Begin screening at age 40 with colonoscopy every 5 years
C) Begin screening at age 50 with fecal immunochemical test (FIT) annually
, D) Begin screening now with a one-time colonoscopy
Correct Answer: Begin screening at age 40 with colonoscopy every 5 years
Rationale: For high-risk individuals with one first-degree relative with
colorectal cancer diagnosed at age < 60, guidelines recommend initiating
screening at age 40 or 10 years before the earliest diagnosis in the family,
whichever is earlier, and repeating colonoscopy every 5 years.
9. According to the USPSTF, which of the following is a Grade A
recommendation for cardiovascular disease prevention?
A) Aspirin for primary prevention in adults aged 50-59 with a 10-year risk
>10%
B) Statin therapy for primary prevention in adults aged 40-75 with one or
more risk factors and a 10-year risk of 10% or greater
C) Vitamin E supplementation for cardiovascular disease prevention
D) Beta-carotene supplementation for cardiovascular disease prevention
Correct Answer: Statin therapy for primary prevention in adults aged 40-75
with one or more risk factors and a 10-year risk of 10% or greater
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends statin therapy for primary prevention of
cardiovascular disease in adults aged 40 to 75 with one or more
cardiovascular risk factors and a calculated 10-year risk of 10% or greater
(Grade A recommendation).
10. In the USPSTF grading system, which grades are recommended to do?
A) Grade A and Grade B
B) Grade A, Grade B, and Grade C
C) Grade A only
D) Grade A, Grade B, Grade C, and Grade D
Correct Answer: Grade A and Grade B
Rationale: The USPSTF assigns letter grades to recommendations based on
the strength of the evidence. Grade A and Grade B recommendations are
recommended to be offered or provided.
