NDEB Released Questions with Answers
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? B. Pain persists only as long as the injury exists.
A. Chronic pain has somatosensory and psychosocial The insular cortex (IC) has a role in both sensory and affective perception of
impacts. pain - the suffering aspect of pain. It is often coactivated with the anterior
B. Pain persists only as long as the injury exists. cingulated cortex. In chronic pain, there is a more widespread activation of the
C. Perception of acute and chronic pain involves IC compared to acute pain.
the same regions of the CNS.
D. Pain is a protective mechanism.
The best way to protect the abutments of a Class I E. regular relining of the distal extensions.
removable partial denture from the negative effects
of the additional load applied to them is by An essential factor for the effectiveness of a distal extension cast partial
denture is stress management on the abutments. This is achieved through a dual
A. splinting abutments with adjacent teeth. impression process, wide coverage, a secure denture base, stiff design,
B. keeping a light occlusion on the distal physiologic shimming, and splinting of the abutments, all combined with
extensions. appropriate attachments.
C. placing distal rests on distal abutments.
D. using cast clasps on distal abutments.
E. regular relining of the distal extensions.
During an endodontic access preparation on A. Immediate seal of the perforation.
tooth 3.6, a small perforation was produced in the
furcation area. What is the most appropriate
management?
A. Immediate seal of the perforation.
B. Delayed seal of the perforation.
C. Immediate surgical repair.
D. Extraction.
Secondary dentin formation may be stimulated by C. attrition.
A. pulp necrosis.
B. fluorosis.
C. attrition.
D. vitamin D therapy.
, NDEB Released Questions with Answers
Sympathetic reflexes accompanying hemorrhage D. have a greater effect on arterial pressure than on cardiac output.
A. allow blood loss up to 60% of the total volume. Acute bleeding is a major factor affecting perioperative circulatory dynamics.
B. have no effect on the amount of blood that can The classical description of the response to acute hemorrhage involves a
be lost. sustained increase in sympathetic activity to maintain arterial BP. However,
C. are part of the long-term compensatory response recent studies of the effects of acute hemorrhage have clearly demonstrated a
mechanism. biphasic hemodynamic response [5,6]. During mild hemorrhage, BP is well
D. have a greater effect on arterial pressure than on maintained by an increase in vascular resistance and HR. A baroreceptor-
cardiac output mediated sympatho-excitatory response is evident in this initial phase. When
the central blood volume is critically reduced by more than 30% of ETBV, a
second phase develops suddenly. This phase is characterized by withdrawal of
sympathetic drive and activation of parasympathetic drive
The initial response to hemorrhage is marked by sympathetic activation,
leading to an increase in heart rate (HR) and total peripheral resistance (TPR).
Cardiac output is the product of heart rate (HR) and stroke volume (SV) and is
measured in liters per minute
Sympathetic reflexes play a crucial role in the body's response to hemorrhage
(excessive bleeding). When blood loss occurs, the sympathetic nervous system
is activated to help maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs. This
is achieved through vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels), which helps
to increase arterial pressure.
While sympathetic reflexes can temporarily compensate for blood loss, they do
not prevent the eventual negative effects of significant hemorrhage. The body's
compensatory mechanisms, including sympathetic reflexes, may buy some
time, but they cannot sustain normal physiological function in the long term. If
blood loss continues, it will eventually lead to a decrease in cardiac output and
compromise overall perfusion.
Examination of a 32 year old pregnant woman D. A systematic review comparing the risk of
reveals that she has generalized periodontal probing delivering pre-term low birth weight babies
depths of 4-6mm, most of which bleed on probing. among women with various risk factors,
She is otherwise healthy, but asks "If I don't get the including the presence of periodontal disease
proper periodontal treatment, am I more likely to
deliver a pre-term, low-birth weight baby?" Which
type of study design would provide the best answer
to her question?
A. A prospective cohort involving pregnant
women, some of whom have periodontal disease
and some of whom do not.
B. A randomized clinical trial of pregnant women
with periodontal disease, some of whom receive
periodontal therapy and some of whom do not.
C. Comparing the rates of pre-term low birth
weight babies, between women with no risk
factors to those with periodontal disease.
D. A systematic review comparing the risk of
delivering pre-term low birth weight babies
among women with various risk factors,
including the presence of periodontal disease
, NDEB Released Questions with Answers
The eruption of a permanent central incisor may be D. All of the above.
delayed by
A. a supernumerary tooth.
B. dense fibrous tissue.
C. a retained deciduous incisor.
D. All of the above.
The minimum time to wait before placing composite C. 2 weeks.
restorations after the completion of a bleaching
(whitening) treatment is 1-2 weeks is the ideal
A. 2 hours.
B. 2 days.
C. 2 weeks.
D. 2 months.
A patient with a pre-existing MOD amalgam C. cusp cap the buccal and lingual cusps and
restoration has just had endodontic therapy restore with a MOD amalgam.
completed on tooth 4.6 but cannot afford a
laboratory fabricated final restoration. Interim
restorative management of 4.6 with the best
prognosis is to
A. restore with a MOD amalgam.
B. reduce the occlusal out of occlusion and restore
with a MOD amalgam.
C. cusp cap the buccal and lingual cusps and
restore with a MOD amalgam.
D. restore with a bonded MOD composite resin.
Epinephrine should NOT be used as a A. hyperthyroidism.
vasoconstrictor for patients with uncontrolled
Addition of adrenaline to local anaesthetic solution is contraindicated for the
A. hyperthyroidism. following diseases like heart diseases, untreated or uncontrolled severe
B. hyperparathyroidism. hypertension, uncontrolled hyperthyroidism, uncontrolled diabetes etc.
C. myxedema.
D. asthma.
Tell-show-do technique when used for behaviour C. will decrease a child's fear of the unknown and
management of pediatric patients their anticipation of pain.
A. works best for children under 3 years of age.
B. involves using scientific dental terminology in
all explanations.
C. will decrease a child's fear of the unknown and
their anticipation of pain.
D. requires a written consent from the parents.
, NDEB Released Questions with Answers
Which of the following nerves should be B. Nasopalatine.
anesthetized for extraction of a maxillary lateral
incisor? The nasociliary nerve is a sensory nerve in the eye. It is part of the ophthalmic
nerve.
A. Nasociliary.
B. Nasopalatine. Blocking the nasopalatine nerve anesthetizes the palatal tissues of the six
C. Sphenopalatine. anterior teeth
D. Infra-Orbital.
The sphenopalatine ganglion (SPG) block is useful for treating acute migraine
headaches, acute and chronic cluster headache,80 post-traumatic headache,81
and facial neuralgias including Sluder's, Vail's, and Gardner's syndromes.
The infraorbital nerve block anaesthetizes the anterior teeth, the 2 premolars,
and the MB cusp of the 1st molar. Buccal mucosa. But not the palatal
Abnormal development of the first pharyngeal arch A. zygomatic bones and the external ears.
may produce defects in the
A. zygomatic bones and the external ears. The first pharyngeal arch (mandibular) gives rise to the structures of the jaw,
B. mandible and the external nose. two of the middle ear bones and the muscles of mastication. The maxillary
C. maxilla and the muscles of facial expression. artery (terminal part) is equally derived from the first arch. The arch separates
D. palate and the hyoid bone. into maxillary (dorsal) and mandibular (ventral) prominences.
The second pharyngeal arch (hyoid) forms the muscles of facial expression,
parts of the face and ear
The third pharyngeal arch forms part of the hyoid bone, the common carotid
artery and part of the internal carotid artery.
The fourth pharyngeal arch forms the laryngeal cartilages, muscles of the soft
palate and pharynx, part of the subclavian artery and the arch of the aorta.
The fifth pharyngeal arch is transient and rudimentary in amniotes. It forms with
the others in the very early stages and then regresses almost immediately.
The sixth pharyngeal arch forms the laryngeal cartilages, the intrinsic muscles
of the larynx, the pulmonary arteries and the ductus arteriosus.
1st (mandibular arch - splits into mandibular and maxillary prominences) -
muscles of mastication,
maxilla, zygomatic bones, palate, squamous temporal bone, vomer, mandible,
incus, malleus,
mylohyoid, anterior digastric, tensor veli palatini, tensor tympani, max artery
hyoid is by arches 2 and 3
external nose comes from frontonasal prominence
An ameloblastoma is most frequently found in B. the mandible, near the junction of the body and the ramus.
A. the anterior region of the maxilla.
B. the mandible, near the junction of the body and
the ramus.
C. the posterior region of the maxilla.
D. in the anterior region of the mandible near the
midline.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? B. Pain persists only as long as the injury exists.
A. Chronic pain has somatosensory and psychosocial The insular cortex (IC) has a role in both sensory and affective perception of
impacts. pain - the suffering aspect of pain. It is often coactivated with the anterior
B. Pain persists only as long as the injury exists. cingulated cortex. In chronic pain, there is a more widespread activation of the
C. Perception of acute and chronic pain involves IC compared to acute pain.
the same regions of the CNS.
D. Pain is a protective mechanism.
The best way to protect the abutments of a Class I E. regular relining of the distal extensions.
removable partial denture from the negative effects
of the additional load applied to them is by An essential factor for the effectiveness of a distal extension cast partial
denture is stress management on the abutments. This is achieved through a dual
A. splinting abutments with adjacent teeth. impression process, wide coverage, a secure denture base, stiff design,
B. keeping a light occlusion on the distal physiologic shimming, and splinting of the abutments, all combined with
extensions. appropriate attachments.
C. placing distal rests on distal abutments.
D. using cast clasps on distal abutments.
E. regular relining of the distal extensions.
During an endodontic access preparation on A. Immediate seal of the perforation.
tooth 3.6, a small perforation was produced in the
furcation area. What is the most appropriate
management?
A. Immediate seal of the perforation.
B. Delayed seal of the perforation.
C. Immediate surgical repair.
D. Extraction.
Secondary dentin formation may be stimulated by C. attrition.
A. pulp necrosis.
B. fluorosis.
C. attrition.
D. vitamin D therapy.
, NDEB Released Questions with Answers
Sympathetic reflexes accompanying hemorrhage D. have a greater effect on arterial pressure than on cardiac output.
A. allow blood loss up to 60% of the total volume. Acute bleeding is a major factor affecting perioperative circulatory dynamics.
B. have no effect on the amount of blood that can The classical description of the response to acute hemorrhage involves a
be lost. sustained increase in sympathetic activity to maintain arterial BP. However,
C. are part of the long-term compensatory response recent studies of the effects of acute hemorrhage have clearly demonstrated a
mechanism. biphasic hemodynamic response [5,6]. During mild hemorrhage, BP is well
D. have a greater effect on arterial pressure than on maintained by an increase in vascular resistance and HR. A baroreceptor-
cardiac output mediated sympatho-excitatory response is evident in this initial phase. When
the central blood volume is critically reduced by more than 30% of ETBV, a
second phase develops suddenly. This phase is characterized by withdrawal of
sympathetic drive and activation of parasympathetic drive
The initial response to hemorrhage is marked by sympathetic activation,
leading to an increase in heart rate (HR) and total peripheral resistance (TPR).
Cardiac output is the product of heart rate (HR) and stroke volume (SV) and is
measured in liters per minute
Sympathetic reflexes play a crucial role in the body's response to hemorrhage
(excessive bleeding). When blood loss occurs, the sympathetic nervous system
is activated to help maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs. This
is achieved through vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels), which helps
to increase arterial pressure.
While sympathetic reflexes can temporarily compensate for blood loss, they do
not prevent the eventual negative effects of significant hemorrhage. The body's
compensatory mechanisms, including sympathetic reflexes, may buy some
time, but they cannot sustain normal physiological function in the long term. If
blood loss continues, it will eventually lead to a decrease in cardiac output and
compromise overall perfusion.
Examination of a 32 year old pregnant woman D. A systematic review comparing the risk of
reveals that she has generalized periodontal probing delivering pre-term low birth weight babies
depths of 4-6mm, most of which bleed on probing. among women with various risk factors,
She is otherwise healthy, but asks "If I don't get the including the presence of periodontal disease
proper periodontal treatment, am I more likely to
deliver a pre-term, low-birth weight baby?" Which
type of study design would provide the best answer
to her question?
A. A prospective cohort involving pregnant
women, some of whom have periodontal disease
and some of whom do not.
B. A randomized clinical trial of pregnant women
with periodontal disease, some of whom receive
periodontal therapy and some of whom do not.
C. Comparing the rates of pre-term low birth
weight babies, between women with no risk
factors to those with periodontal disease.
D. A systematic review comparing the risk of
delivering pre-term low birth weight babies
among women with various risk factors,
including the presence of periodontal disease
, NDEB Released Questions with Answers
The eruption of a permanent central incisor may be D. All of the above.
delayed by
A. a supernumerary tooth.
B. dense fibrous tissue.
C. a retained deciduous incisor.
D. All of the above.
The minimum time to wait before placing composite C. 2 weeks.
restorations after the completion of a bleaching
(whitening) treatment is 1-2 weeks is the ideal
A. 2 hours.
B. 2 days.
C. 2 weeks.
D. 2 months.
A patient with a pre-existing MOD amalgam C. cusp cap the buccal and lingual cusps and
restoration has just had endodontic therapy restore with a MOD amalgam.
completed on tooth 4.6 but cannot afford a
laboratory fabricated final restoration. Interim
restorative management of 4.6 with the best
prognosis is to
A. restore with a MOD amalgam.
B. reduce the occlusal out of occlusion and restore
with a MOD amalgam.
C. cusp cap the buccal and lingual cusps and
restore with a MOD amalgam.
D. restore with a bonded MOD composite resin.
Epinephrine should NOT be used as a A. hyperthyroidism.
vasoconstrictor for patients with uncontrolled
Addition of adrenaline to local anaesthetic solution is contraindicated for the
A. hyperthyroidism. following diseases like heart diseases, untreated or uncontrolled severe
B. hyperparathyroidism. hypertension, uncontrolled hyperthyroidism, uncontrolled diabetes etc.
C. myxedema.
D. asthma.
Tell-show-do technique when used for behaviour C. will decrease a child's fear of the unknown and
management of pediatric patients their anticipation of pain.
A. works best for children under 3 years of age.
B. involves using scientific dental terminology in
all explanations.
C. will decrease a child's fear of the unknown and
their anticipation of pain.
D. requires a written consent from the parents.
, NDEB Released Questions with Answers
Which of the following nerves should be B. Nasopalatine.
anesthetized for extraction of a maxillary lateral
incisor? The nasociliary nerve is a sensory nerve in the eye. It is part of the ophthalmic
nerve.
A. Nasociliary.
B. Nasopalatine. Blocking the nasopalatine nerve anesthetizes the palatal tissues of the six
C. Sphenopalatine. anterior teeth
D. Infra-Orbital.
The sphenopalatine ganglion (SPG) block is useful for treating acute migraine
headaches, acute and chronic cluster headache,80 post-traumatic headache,81
and facial neuralgias including Sluder's, Vail's, and Gardner's syndromes.
The infraorbital nerve block anaesthetizes the anterior teeth, the 2 premolars,
and the MB cusp of the 1st molar. Buccal mucosa. But not the palatal
Abnormal development of the first pharyngeal arch A. zygomatic bones and the external ears.
may produce defects in the
A. zygomatic bones and the external ears. The first pharyngeal arch (mandibular) gives rise to the structures of the jaw,
B. mandible and the external nose. two of the middle ear bones and the muscles of mastication. The maxillary
C. maxilla and the muscles of facial expression. artery (terminal part) is equally derived from the first arch. The arch separates
D. palate and the hyoid bone. into maxillary (dorsal) and mandibular (ventral) prominences.
The second pharyngeal arch (hyoid) forms the muscles of facial expression,
parts of the face and ear
The third pharyngeal arch forms part of the hyoid bone, the common carotid
artery and part of the internal carotid artery.
The fourth pharyngeal arch forms the laryngeal cartilages, muscles of the soft
palate and pharynx, part of the subclavian artery and the arch of the aorta.
The fifth pharyngeal arch is transient and rudimentary in amniotes. It forms with
the others in the very early stages and then regresses almost immediately.
The sixth pharyngeal arch forms the laryngeal cartilages, the intrinsic muscles
of the larynx, the pulmonary arteries and the ductus arteriosus.
1st (mandibular arch - splits into mandibular and maxillary prominences) -
muscles of mastication,
maxilla, zygomatic bones, palate, squamous temporal bone, vomer, mandible,
incus, malleus,
mylohyoid, anterior digastric, tensor veli palatini, tensor tympani, max artery
hyoid is by arches 2 and 3
external nose comes from frontonasal prominence
An ameloblastoma is most frequently found in B. the mandible, near the junction of the body and the ramus.
A. the anterior region of the maxilla.
B. the mandible, near the junction of the body and
the ramus.
C. the posterior region of the maxilla.
D. in the anterior region of the mandible near the
midline.
