HESI OB Maternity Test Bank | 600 Questions
with Correct Answers & Rationales | Latest
Update | 100% Pass Guarantee
Question 1:
A client at 32-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic with complaints of pedal
edema, dyspnea, fatigue, and a moist cough. Which question is most important for the
nurse to ask this client?
A) "Do you have a history of rheumatic fever?"
B) "Have you been exposed to anyone with a respiratory infection?"
C) "How much weight have you gained this pregnancy?"
D) "Are you having chest pain with your cough?"
Correct Answer: A) "Do you have a history of rheumatic fever?"
Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest possible cardiac decompensation. A history of
rheumatic fever is a significant risk factor for mitral stenosis or other valvular disease,
which can cause heart failure during pregnancy due to increased cardiac workload. This
is a key assessment question to identify underlying cardiac pathology .
Question 2:
A 35-year-old primigravida client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium
sulfate via continuous IV infusion. Which assessment data indicates to the nurse that the
client is experiencing magnesium sulfate toxicity?
A) Deep tendon reflexes 2+
B) Blood pressure 140/90
C) Respiratory rate 18/minute
D) Urine output 90 mL/4 hours
Correct Answer: D) Urine output 90 mL/4 hours
Rationale: Urine outputs of less than 100 mL/4 hours, absent deep tendon reflexes
(DTRs), and a respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths/minute are cardinal signs of
,magnesium sulfate toxicity. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant
used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia. The therapeutic range is 4-7 mEq/L; toxicity
occurs at levels > 8 mEq/L. The antidote for magnesium toxicity is calcium gluconate .
Question 3:
A 38-week primigravida who works as a secretary and sits at a computer 8 hours each
day tells the nurse that her feet have begun to swell. Which instruction would be most
effective in preventing pooling of blood in the lower extremities?
A) Wear support stockings
B) Reduce salt in her diet
C) Move about every hour
D) Avoid constrictive clothing
Correct Answer: C) Move about every hour
Rationale: Moving about every hour promotes venous return by using the calf muscle
pump, which is the most effective intervention for preventing dependent edema.
Support stockings may help but are less effective than active movement. Salt reduction
is for generalized edema, not pooling. While constrictive clothing should be avoided, it
does not directly address the cause of pooling .
Question 4:
A pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III is prescribed complete bedrest. The client
asks the nurse, "Why must I stay in bed all the time?" Which response is best for the
nurse to provide this client?
A) "Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on the heart muscle
tissue."
B) "We want your baby to be healthy, and this is the only way we can make sure that will
happen."
C) "I know you're upset. Would you like to talk about some things you could do while in
bed?"
D) "Labor is difficult and you need to use this time to rest before you have to assume all
child-caring duties."
,Correct Answer: A) "Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on
the heart muscle tissue."
Rationale: Mitral stenosis reduces cardiac output and increases the workload on the
heart. Bedrest reduces myocardial oxygen demand and minimizes the risk of cardiac
decompensation. Option A provides an accurate physiological rationale. Options B and
D are patronizing; Option C acknowledges feelings but does not answer the client's
question .
Question 5:
A couple has been trying to conceive for nine months without success. Which
information obtained from the clients is most likely to have an impact on the couple's
ability to conceive a child?
A) A 35-year-old female with irregular menstrual cycles
B) A 28-year-old male who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
C) The couple uses lubricants during intercourse
D) The female has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct Answer: A) A 35-year-old female with irregular menstrual cycles
Rationale: Irregular menstrual cycles indicate possible anovulation or hormonal
imbalance, which directly impacts fertility. Age over 35 also reduces fertility. While
smoking, lubricant use, and PID affect fertility, anovulation is the most direct cause of
infertility. Age-related decline in fertility is a significant factor, with women over 35
facing a 50% reduction in fertility .
Question 6:
The nurse is teaching a woman how to use her basal body temperature (BBT) pattern as
a tool to assist her in conceiving a child. Which temperature pattern indicates the
occurrence of ovulation, and therefore, the best time for intercourse to ensure
conception?
A) Between the time the temperature falls and rises
B) Between 36 and 48 hours after the temperature rises
, C) When the temperature reaches its lowest point
D) When the temperature remains elevated for 3 days
Correct Answer: A) Between the time the temperature falls and rises
Rationale: Ovulation causes a slight drop in BBT, followed by a sustained rise of 0.4-
0.8°F (0.2-0.5°C). The fertile window is the 2-3 days before ovulation, which corresponds
to the time between the temperature fall and rise. The temperature rise itself confirms
that ovulation has already occurred. Intercourse should occur before the temperature
rise for maximum fertility .
Question 7:
A woman who thinks she could be pregnant calls her neighbor, a nurse, to ask when she
could use a home pregnancy test to diagnose pregnancy. Which response is
appropriate?
A) "A home pregnancy test can be used right after your missed period."
B) "These tests are most accurate after you have missed your second period."
C) "Home pregnancy tests often give false positives and should not be trusted."
D) "The test can provide accurate information when used right after ovulation."
Correct Answer: A) "A home pregnancy test can be used right after your missed
period."
Rationale: Home urine tests detect human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which begins
to increase 6 to 8 days after conception and is best detected at 2 weeks gestation, or
immediately after the first missed period. Option B is incorrect; they are accurate sooner.
False positives are rare. Option D is too early, as hCG levels are not yet detectable .
Question 8:
The nurse is calculating the estimated date of confinement (EDC) using Nägele's rule for
a client whose last menstrual period started on December 1. Which date is most
accurate?
A) August 1
B) August 10
with Correct Answers & Rationales | Latest
Update | 100% Pass Guarantee
Question 1:
A client at 32-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic with complaints of pedal
edema, dyspnea, fatigue, and a moist cough. Which question is most important for the
nurse to ask this client?
A) "Do you have a history of rheumatic fever?"
B) "Have you been exposed to anyone with a respiratory infection?"
C) "How much weight have you gained this pregnancy?"
D) "Are you having chest pain with your cough?"
Correct Answer: A) "Do you have a history of rheumatic fever?"
Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest possible cardiac decompensation. A history of
rheumatic fever is a significant risk factor for mitral stenosis or other valvular disease,
which can cause heart failure during pregnancy due to increased cardiac workload. This
is a key assessment question to identify underlying cardiac pathology .
Question 2:
A 35-year-old primigravida client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium
sulfate via continuous IV infusion. Which assessment data indicates to the nurse that the
client is experiencing magnesium sulfate toxicity?
A) Deep tendon reflexes 2+
B) Blood pressure 140/90
C) Respiratory rate 18/minute
D) Urine output 90 mL/4 hours
Correct Answer: D) Urine output 90 mL/4 hours
Rationale: Urine outputs of less than 100 mL/4 hours, absent deep tendon reflexes
(DTRs), and a respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths/minute are cardinal signs of
,magnesium sulfate toxicity. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant
used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia. The therapeutic range is 4-7 mEq/L; toxicity
occurs at levels > 8 mEq/L. The antidote for magnesium toxicity is calcium gluconate .
Question 3:
A 38-week primigravida who works as a secretary and sits at a computer 8 hours each
day tells the nurse that her feet have begun to swell. Which instruction would be most
effective in preventing pooling of blood in the lower extremities?
A) Wear support stockings
B) Reduce salt in her diet
C) Move about every hour
D) Avoid constrictive clothing
Correct Answer: C) Move about every hour
Rationale: Moving about every hour promotes venous return by using the calf muscle
pump, which is the most effective intervention for preventing dependent edema.
Support stockings may help but are less effective than active movement. Salt reduction
is for generalized edema, not pooling. While constrictive clothing should be avoided, it
does not directly address the cause of pooling .
Question 4:
A pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III is prescribed complete bedrest. The client
asks the nurse, "Why must I stay in bed all the time?" Which response is best for the
nurse to provide this client?
A) "Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on the heart muscle
tissue."
B) "We want your baby to be healthy, and this is the only way we can make sure that will
happen."
C) "I know you're upset. Would you like to talk about some things you could do while in
bed?"
D) "Labor is difficult and you need to use this time to rest before you have to assume all
child-caring duties."
,Correct Answer: A) "Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on
the heart muscle tissue."
Rationale: Mitral stenosis reduces cardiac output and increases the workload on the
heart. Bedrest reduces myocardial oxygen demand and minimizes the risk of cardiac
decompensation. Option A provides an accurate physiological rationale. Options B and
D are patronizing; Option C acknowledges feelings but does not answer the client's
question .
Question 5:
A couple has been trying to conceive for nine months without success. Which
information obtained from the clients is most likely to have an impact on the couple's
ability to conceive a child?
A) A 35-year-old female with irregular menstrual cycles
B) A 28-year-old male who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
C) The couple uses lubricants during intercourse
D) The female has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct Answer: A) A 35-year-old female with irregular menstrual cycles
Rationale: Irregular menstrual cycles indicate possible anovulation or hormonal
imbalance, which directly impacts fertility. Age over 35 also reduces fertility. While
smoking, lubricant use, and PID affect fertility, anovulation is the most direct cause of
infertility. Age-related decline in fertility is a significant factor, with women over 35
facing a 50% reduction in fertility .
Question 6:
The nurse is teaching a woman how to use her basal body temperature (BBT) pattern as
a tool to assist her in conceiving a child. Which temperature pattern indicates the
occurrence of ovulation, and therefore, the best time for intercourse to ensure
conception?
A) Between the time the temperature falls and rises
B) Between 36 and 48 hours after the temperature rises
, C) When the temperature reaches its lowest point
D) When the temperature remains elevated for 3 days
Correct Answer: A) Between the time the temperature falls and rises
Rationale: Ovulation causes a slight drop in BBT, followed by a sustained rise of 0.4-
0.8°F (0.2-0.5°C). The fertile window is the 2-3 days before ovulation, which corresponds
to the time between the temperature fall and rise. The temperature rise itself confirms
that ovulation has already occurred. Intercourse should occur before the temperature
rise for maximum fertility .
Question 7:
A woman who thinks she could be pregnant calls her neighbor, a nurse, to ask when she
could use a home pregnancy test to diagnose pregnancy. Which response is
appropriate?
A) "A home pregnancy test can be used right after your missed period."
B) "These tests are most accurate after you have missed your second period."
C) "Home pregnancy tests often give false positives and should not be trusted."
D) "The test can provide accurate information when used right after ovulation."
Correct Answer: A) "A home pregnancy test can be used right after your missed
period."
Rationale: Home urine tests detect human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which begins
to increase 6 to 8 days after conception and is best detected at 2 weeks gestation, or
immediately after the first missed period. Option B is incorrect; they are accurate sooner.
False positives are rare. Option D is too early, as hCG levels are not yet detectable .
Question 8:
The nurse is calculating the estimated date of confinement (EDC) using Nägele's rule for
a client whose last menstrual period started on December 1. Which date is most
accurate?
A) August 1
B) August 10
