NR 547 CEA COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAM
LATEST UPDATED ACTUAL FINAL EXAM WITH ALL
POSSIBLE AND MOST TESTED 100 PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS FULLY SOLVED WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY 2026-2027
FINAL EXAM UPDATED VERSION 100%
GUARANTEED PASS MOST RECENT!!!
1. A 68-year-old male with a 45-pack-year smoking
history presents with a new onset of hoarseness and
a dry, non-productive cough that has persisted for
six weeks. He denies fever or hemoptysis. What is
the most appropriate initial diagnostic step?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Direct laryngoscopy
C. Sputum cytology
D. CT scan of the chest with contrast
Rationale: A persistent cough and hoarseness in a
,heavy smoker are red flag symptoms for a potential
malignancy. A chest X-ray is the most appropriate,
accessible, and cost-effective initial imaging study to
evaluate for a central mass or mediastinal
lymphadenopathy that could affect the recurrent
laryngeal nerve. Further invasive studies like
laryngoscopy or CT are guided by the initial findings.
2. A 55-year-old female with a history of type 2
diabetes mellitus presents with a painful,
erythematous, swollen left lower extremity. She
reports no trauma. On examination, the affected leg
is warm to the touch and has a positive Homan’s
sign. What is the most critical initial step in
management?
A. Start oral antibiotics
B. Apply warm compresses
C. Obtain a venous duplex ultrasound
D. Elevate the extremity
Rationale: The presentation of unilateral leg pain,
erythema, warmth, and swelling in a patient with
,diabetes strongly suggests a deep vein thrombosis
(DVT). Homan’s sign is a classic but unreliable
physical exam finding for DVT. The most critical
initial step is to confirm the diagnosis with a venous
duplex ultrasound before initiating anticoagulation
to prevent a pulmonary embolism.
3. A 72-year-old male is brought to the clinic by his
wife due to progressive memory loss. He has
difficulty managing his finances and frequently
repeats questions. He remains socially appropriate
and his motor functions are intact. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Dementia with Lewy bodies
C. Vascular dementia
D. Frontotemporal dementia
Rationale: This patient is presenting with classic
early symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease: progressive,
insidious onset of memory loss, executive
dysfunction (managing finances), and repetitive
, questioning. Social appropriateness and the absence
of early motor or visual hallucinations help
differentiate it from other dementias.
4. A 45-year-old female presents with fatigue,
weight gain, cold intolerance, and dry skin.
Laboratory findings reveal an elevated TSH and a
low free T4. Which of the following is the most
common cause of this condition in the United
States?
A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
B. Iodine deficiency
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis
Rationale: This clinical picture and lab pattern are
classic for primary hypothyroidism. The most
common cause of primary hypothyroidism in iodine-
sufficient regions like the United States is
autoimmune Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, characterized
by the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase
antibodies.
LATEST UPDATED ACTUAL FINAL EXAM WITH ALL
POSSIBLE AND MOST TESTED 100 PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS FULLY SOLVED WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY 2026-2027
FINAL EXAM UPDATED VERSION 100%
GUARANTEED PASS MOST RECENT!!!
1. A 68-year-old male with a 45-pack-year smoking
history presents with a new onset of hoarseness and
a dry, non-productive cough that has persisted for
six weeks. He denies fever or hemoptysis. What is
the most appropriate initial diagnostic step?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Direct laryngoscopy
C. Sputum cytology
D. CT scan of the chest with contrast
Rationale: A persistent cough and hoarseness in a
,heavy smoker are red flag symptoms for a potential
malignancy. A chest X-ray is the most appropriate,
accessible, and cost-effective initial imaging study to
evaluate for a central mass or mediastinal
lymphadenopathy that could affect the recurrent
laryngeal nerve. Further invasive studies like
laryngoscopy or CT are guided by the initial findings.
2. A 55-year-old female with a history of type 2
diabetes mellitus presents with a painful,
erythematous, swollen left lower extremity. She
reports no trauma. On examination, the affected leg
is warm to the touch and has a positive Homan’s
sign. What is the most critical initial step in
management?
A. Start oral antibiotics
B. Apply warm compresses
C. Obtain a venous duplex ultrasound
D. Elevate the extremity
Rationale: The presentation of unilateral leg pain,
erythema, warmth, and swelling in a patient with
,diabetes strongly suggests a deep vein thrombosis
(DVT). Homan’s sign is a classic but unreliable
physical exam finding for DVT. The most critical
initial step is to confirm the diagnosis with a venous
duplex ultrasound before initiating anticoagulation
to prevent a pulmonary embolism.
3. A 72-year-old male is brought to the clinic by his
wife due to progressive memory loss. He has
difficulty managing his finances and frequently
repeats questions. He remains socially appropriate
and his motor functions are intact. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Dementia with Lewy bodies
C. Vascular dementia
D. Frontotemporal dementia
Rationale: This patient is presenting with classic
early symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease: progressive,
insidious onset of memory loss, executive
dysfunction (managing finances), and repetitive
, questioning. Social appropriateness and the absence
of early motor or visual hallucinations help
differentiate it from other dementias.
4. A 45-year-old female presents with fatigue,
weight gain, cold intolerance, and dry skin.
Laboratory findings reveal an elevated TSH and a
low free T4. Which of the following is the most
common cause of this condition in the United
States?
A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
B. Iodine deficiency
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis
Rationale: This clinical picture and lab pattern are
classic for primary hypothyroidism. The most
common cause of primary hypothyroidism in iodine-
sufficient regions like the United States is
autoimmune Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, characterized
by the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase
antibodies.
