CJE WOMEN'S HEALTH EXAM NEWEST
2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK |
WOMEN'S HEALTH CJE EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS A+
GRADED /GUARANTEED PASS!!
1. A nurse is teaching a client at 28 weeks' gestation about signs of preterm
labor. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
• A. "I should call if I have four or more contractions in an hour."
• B. "A change in vaginal discharge could be a sign of preterm labor."
• C. "I can continue to have sexual intercourse as long as I don't have
pain."
• D. "Menstrual-like cramps that come and go are a warning sign."
• Correct Answer: C. I can continue to have sexual intercourse as long as I
don't have pain.
• Rationale: A client at risk for preterm labor should be advised to avoid sexual
intercourse, as it can stimulate uterine contractions.
2. A G2P1 client with a BMI of 35 at her 26-week prenatal visit has a 1-hour
glucose tolerance test result of 150 mg/dL. What is the nurse's next action?
• A. Diagnose the client with gestational diabetes.
• B. Schedule a 3-hour glucose tolerance test.
• C. Start the client on insulin therapy immediately.
• D. Repeat the 1-hour test in 2 weeks.
• Correct Answer: B. Schedule a 3-hour glucose tolerance test.
• Rationale: A 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 150 mg/dL (often 130-
140 mg/dL is the upper limit of normal) is considered positive and requires
follow-up with a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test to diagnose gestational
diabetes.
3. A client at 38 weeks' gestation reports a sudden gush of fluid. What is the
nurse's priority action?
• A. Check the fetal heart rate.
• B. Test the fluid with nitrazine paper.
• C. Inspect the perineum for crowning.
• D. Ask the client when she last voided.
• Correct Answer: A. Check the fetal heart rate.
, • Rationale: A sudden gush of fluid suggests rupture of membranes. The
priority is to assess fetal well-being immediately, as this can be accompanied
by an umbilical cord prolapse, which would compromise fetal oxygenation.
4. A client at 34 weeks' gestation with preeclampsia has a platelet count of
80,000/mm³. What is the nurse's priority action?
• A. Continue routine monitoring.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment.
• Correct Answer: B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm³ in a client with preeclampsia is a
critical finding. This severe thrombocytopenia is a hallmark of HELLP syndrome
(Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets) and requires immediate
notification of the provider.
5. A client at 28 weeks' gestation has a positive Group B Streptococcus (GBS)
screen. Which intervention is indicated?
• A. Administer oral antibiotics now.
• B. Administer intrapartum IV antibiotics.
• C. Schedule a cesarean section.
• D. No intervention is needed.
• Correct Answer: B. Administer intrapartum IV antibiotics.
• Rationale: The standard of care for GBS-positive clients is to administer
intravenous antibiotics (typically penicillin) during labor to reduce the risk of
early-onset GBS sepsis in the newborn.
6. Using Nägele's rule, if a client's LMP was August 19, 2025, what is the
estimated date of birth (EDB)?
• A. May 12, 2026
• B. May 26, 2026
• C. May 19, 2026
• D. June 2, 2026
• Correct Answer: B. May 26, 2026
• Rationale: Nägele's rule is calculated by subtracting three months from the
first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) and adding seven days. (August - 3
months = May; 19 + 7 days = May 26, 2026).
,7. A client is at 39 weeks' gestation and a prolapsed umbilical cord is noted.
What is the priority nursing intervention?
• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean section.
• B. Apply internal fetal monitoring.
• C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position and elevate the presenting
part.
• D. Administer oxytocin to augment labor.
• Correct Answer: C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position and elevate
the presenting part.
• Rationale: In a cord prolapse, the priority is to relieve pressure on the cord
from the presenting part to maintain fetal oxygenation. The client is placed in
Trendelenburg or knee-chest position, and the presenting part is manually
elevated. This is done while preparing for an immediate delivery.
8. The nurse notes that a client's amniotic fluid is green-tinged. What should
the nurse conclude?
• A. The fluid is normal.
• B. The fetus is likely in distress.
• C. The fluid contains meconium.
• D. The mother has an infection.
• Correct Answer: C. The fluid contains meconium.
• Rationale: Green-tinged amniotic fluid indicates the presence of meconium
(fetal stool), which can be a sign of fetal distress. The newborn will need to be
assessed for meconium aspiration syndrome.
9. A nurse is caring for a client in labor being induced with oxytocin. The client
is noted to have 6 contractions in 10 minutes. The fetal monitor indicates fetal
distress. Which action should the nurse perform first?
• A. Stop the oxytocin.
• B. Position the client on her left side.
• C. Administer oxygen by mask.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.
• Correct Answer: A. Stop the oxytocin.
• Rationale: Tachysystole (more than 5 contractions in 10 minutes) can lead to
fetal distress due to decreased placental perfusion. The priority is to stop the
oxytocin infusion immediately to reduce uterine activity.
10. A postpartum client presents with a boggy uterus that is deviated to the
right. What is the nurse's priority action?
, • A. Massage the fundus vigorously.
• B. Assist the client to void.
• C. Administer prescribed oxytocin.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.
• Correct Answer: B. Assist the client to void.
• Rationale: A boggy uterus that is deviated to the right is a classic sign of a
distended bladder, which prevents the uterus from contracting effectively. The
priority is to help the client empty her bladder, which will often allow the
uterus to contract and become firm in the midline.
11. Which assessment finding is the most common cause of early postpartum
hemorrhage?
• A. Uterine atony
• B. Vaginal lacerations
• C. Retained placenta
• D. Coagulation disorders
• Correct Answer: A. Uterine atony
• Rationale: Uterine atony (a lack of uterine muscle tone) is the leading cause
of postpartum hemorrhage. The inability of the uterus to contract firmly after
delivery fails to compress the open blood vessels at the placental site, leading
to excessive bleeding.
12. The nurse in a women's health clinic provides education on a safety plan for
intimate partner abuse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for
further education?
• A. "I need to have a code word to use with my children."
• B. "I will gather important documents like my ID and social security card."
• C. "I need to get prepaid phone cards to take with me."
• D. "I will identify a safe place to go and a safe person to contact."
• Correct Answer: C. "I need to get prepaid phone cards to take with me."
• Rationale: While a prepaid phone card might be useful, the key element of a
safety plan is to have a charged cell phone and/or a list of emergency
contacts. The statement shows a misunderstanding of the priority, which is
immediate and reliable communication.
13. A 39-year-old client has a positive high-risk HPV test and a cervical cytology
result showing high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL). Which
procedure is commonly performed for diagnosis and treatment?
• A. LEEP (Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure)
2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK |
WOMEN'S HEALTH CJE EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS A+
GRADED /GUARANTEED PASS!!
1. A nurse is teaching a client at 28 weeks' gestation about signs of preterm
labor. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
• A. "I should call if I have four or more contractions in an hour."
• B. "A change in vaginal discharge could be a sign of preterm labor."
• C. "I can continue to have sexual intercourse as long as I don't have
pain."
• D. "Menstrual-like cramps that come and go are a warning sign."
• Correct Answer: C. I can continue to have sexual intercourse as long as I
don't have pain.
• Rationale: A client at risk for preterm labor should be advised to avoid sexual
intercourse, as it can stimulate uterine contractions.
2. A G2P1 client with a BMI of 35 at her 26-week prenatal visit has a 1-hour
glucose tolerance test result of 150 mg/dL. What is the nurse's next action?
• A. Diagnose the client with gestational diabetes.
• B. Schedule a 3-hour glucose tolerance test.
• C. Start the client on insulin therapy immediately.
• D. Repeat the 1-hour test in 2 weeks.
• Correct Answer: B. Schedule a 3-hour glucose tolerance test.
• Rationale: A 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 150 mg/dL (often 130-
140 mg/dL is the upper limit of normal) is considered positive and requires
follow-up with a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test to diagnose gestational
diabetes.
3. A client at 38 weeks' gestation reports a sudden gush of fluid. What is the
nurse's priority action?
• A. Check the fetal heart rate.
• B. Test the fluid with nitrazine paper.
• C. Inspect the perineum for crowning.
• D. Ask the client when she last voided.
• Correct Answer: A. Check the fetal heart rate.
, • Rationale: A sudden gush of fluid suggests rupture of membranes. The
priority is to assess fetal well-being immediately, as this can be accompanied
by an umbilical cord prolapse, which would compromise fetal oxygenation.
4. A client at 34 weeks' gestation with preeclampsia has a platelet count of
80,000/mm³. What is the nurse's priority action?
• A. Continue routine monitoring.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment.
• Correct Answer: B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm³ in a client with preeclampsia is a
critical finding. This severe thrombocytopenia is a hallmark of HELLP syndrome
(Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets) and requires immediate
notification of the provider.
5. A client at 28 weeks' gestation has a positive Group B Streptococcus (GBS)
screen. Which intervention is indicated?
• A. Administer oral antibiotics now.
• B. Administer intrapartum IV antibiotics.
• C. Schedule a cesarean section.
• D. No intervention is needed.
• Correct Answer: B. Administer intrapartum IV antibiotics.
• Rationale: The standard of care for GBS-positive clients is to administer
intravenous antibiotics (typically penicillin) during labor to reduce the risk of
early-onset GBS sepsis in the newborn.
6. Using Nägele's rule, if a client's LMP was August 19, 2025, what is the
estimated date of birth (EDB)?
• A. May 12, 2026
• B. May 26, 2026
• C. May 19, 2026
• D. June 2, 2026
• Correct Answer: B. May 26, 2026
• Rationale: Nägele's rule is calculated by subtracting three months from the
first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) and adding seven days. (August - 3
months = May; 19 + 7 days = May 26, 2026).
,7. A client is at 39 weeks' gestation and a prolapsed umbilical cord is noted.
What is the priority nursing intervention?
• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean section.
• B. Apply internal fetal monitoring.
• C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position and elevate the presenting
part.
• D. Administer oxytocin to augment labor.
• Correct Answer: C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position and elevate
the presenting part.
• Rationale: In a cord prolapse, the priority is to relieve pressure on the cord
from the presenting part to maintain fetal oxygenation. The client is placed in
Trendelenburg or knee-chest position, and the presenting part is manually
elevated. This is done while preparing for an immediate delivery.
8. The nurse notes that a client's amniotic fluid is green-tinged. What should
the nurse conclude?
• A. The fluid is normal.
• B. The fetus is likely in distress.
• C. The fluid contains meconium.
• D. The mother has an infection.
• Correct Answer: C. The fluid contains meconium.
• Rationale: Green-tinged amniotic fluid indicates the presence of meconium
(fetal stool), which can be a sign of fetal distress. The newborn will need to be
assessed for meconium aspiration syndrome.
9. A nurse is caring for a client in labor being induced with oxytocin. The client
is noted to have 6 contractions in 10 minutes. The fetal monitor indicates fetal
distress. Which action should the nurse perform first?
• A. Stop the oxytocin.
• B. Position the client on her left side.
• C. Administer oxygen by mask.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.
• Correct Answer: A. Stop the oxytocin.
• Rationale: Tachysystole (more than 5 contractions in 10 minutes) can lead to
fetal distress due to decreased placental perfusion. The priority is to stop the
oxytocin infusion immediately to reduce uterine activity.
10. A postpartum client presents with a boggy uterus that is deviated to the
right. What is the nurse's priority action?
, • A. Massage the fundus vigorously.
• B. Assist the client to void.
• C. Administer prescribed oxytocin.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.
• Correct Answer: B. Assist the client to void.
• Rationale: A boggy uterus that is deviated to the right is a classic sign of a
distended bladder, which prevents the uterus from contracting effectively. The
priority is to help the client empty her bladder, which will often allow the
uterus to contract and become firm in the midline.
11. Which assessment finding is the most common cause of early postpartum
hemorrhage?
• A. Uterine atony
• B. Vaginal lacerations
• C. Retained placenta
• D. Coagulation disorders
• Correct Answer: A. Uterine atony
• Rationale: Uterine atony (a lack of uterine muscle tone) is the leading cause
of postpartum hemorrhage. The inability of the uterus to contract firmly after
delivery fails to compress the open blood vessels at the placental site, leading
to excessive bleeding.
12. The nurse in a women's health clinic provides education on a safety plan for
intimate partner abuse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for
further education?
• A. "I need to have a code word to use with my children."
• B. "I will gather important documents like my ID and social security card."
• C. "I need to get prepaid phone cards to take with me."
• D. "I will identify a safe place to go and a safe person to contact."
• Correct Answer: C. "I need to get prepaid phone cards to take with me."
• Rationale: While a prepaid phone card might be useful, the key element of a
safety plan is to have a charged cell phone and/or a list of emergency
contacts. The statement shows a misunderstanding of the priority, which is
immediate and reliable communication.
13. A 39-year-old client has a positive high-risk HPV test and a cervical cytology
result showing high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL). Which
procedure is commonly performed for diagnosis and treatment?
• A. LEEP (Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure)
