Adult Health Nursing Midterm
Examination Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant Download
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1. A nurse is assessing an adult client admitted with hypovolemia. Which
assessment finding is most consistent with decreased circulating blood
volume?
A. Bounding peripheral pulses
B. Bradycardia with hypertension
C. Tachycardia with decreased urine output
D. Warm, flushed skin
Answer: C. Tachycardia with decreased urine output
Rationale: Tachycardia is a compensatory response to reduced circulating volume
because the heart attempts to maintain cardiac output. Decreased renal perfusion
causes oliguria as the body conserves fluid. Bounding pulses and warm, flushed skin
are not typical findings of hypovolemia, while hypertension is generally inconsistent
with significant volume depletion.
2. A client with heart failure reports increasing shortness of breath and
difficulty breathing while lying flat. Which additional finding should the nurse
expect?
A. Peripheral cyanosis only
B. Crackles in the lung bases
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Dry mucous membranes
,Answer: B. Crackles in the lung bases
Rationale: Crackles occur when fluid accumulates in the alveoli and small airways,
commonly seen with pulmonary congestion associated with left-sided heart failure.
Orthopnea and dyspnea are also characteristic. The nurse should assess
oxygenation, respiratory status, fluid balance, and other signs of worsening heart
failure.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD). Which intervention is most appropriate for improving ventilation?
A. Encourage prolonged bed rest
B. Teach pursed-lip breathing
C. Administer excessive oxygen continuously
D. Encourage rapid shallow breathing
Answer: B. Teach pursed-lip breathing
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing helps keep the airways open during expiration,
reduces air trapping, and promotes more effective ventilation in clients with COPD.
The client should inhale slowly through the nose and exhale slowly through partially
closed lips. Oxygen should be administered carefully according to the prescribed
target because excessive oxygen in some clients with severe COPD can worsen
carbon dioxide retention.
4. A client is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires the
nurse's immediate attention?
A. Temperature of 38.2°C
B. Productive cough
C. Oxygen saturation of 86%
D. Fatigue during ambulation
Answer: C. Oxygen saturation of 86%
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 86% indicates significant hypoxemia and
requires immediate assessment and intervention. Airway and breathing take
priority. The nurse should assess respiratory effort, administer oxygen as prescribed,
,position the client to maximize ventilation, and promptly notify the appropriate
healthcare provider if hypoxemia persists. Fever, cough, and fatigue are common
manifestations of pneumonia but are not as immediately threatening as severe
hypoxemia.
5. A client with asthma develops wheezing, chest tightness, and difficulty
speaking in complete sentences. Which medication should the nurse
anticipate administering first for acute bronchospasm?
A. Albuterol
B. Warfarin
C. Furosemide
D. Omeprazole
Answer: A. Albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist that rapidly
produces bronchodilation and is commonly used as a rescue medication during an
acute asthma exacerbation. The nurse should also assess oxygenation, respiratory
effort, and response to treatment. Inability to speak in complete sentences can
indicate severe respiratory compromise and requires urgent intervention.
6. A nurse is assessing a client after a myocardial infarction. Which finding is
most concerning?
A. Mild anxiety
B. Occasional fatigue
C. New onset of ventricular dysrhythmia
D. Heart rate of 78 beats/minute
Answer: C. New onset of ventricular dysrhythmia
Rationale: Ventricular dysrhythmias can significantly reduce cardiac output and
may progress to ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Following
myocardial infarction, damaged myocardial tissue can disrupt electrical conduction.
The nurse should continuously monitor the cardiac rhythm and respond promptly to
potentially life-threatening dysrhythmias.
, 7. A client with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which statement
by the client indicates correct understanding?
A. "I can eat canned soups every day."
B. "I should read food labels for sodium content."
C. "Salt substitutes are always safe."
D. "Processed meats are recommended."
Answer: B. "I should read food labels for sodium content."
Rationale: Many processed, canned, packaged, and restaurant foods contain
substantial amounts of sodium. Reading nutrition labels helps clients identify high-
sodium foods and make appropriate dietary choices. Salt substitutes may contain
potassium and may be unsafe for clients taking certain medications or having renal
impairment, so they should be discussed with the healthcare provider.
8. A client with peripheral arterial disease reports severe calf pain when
walking that improves after resting. How should the nurse interpret this
finding?
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Venous stasis
C. Neuropathic pain
D. Acute compartment syndrome
Answer: A. Intermittent claudication
Rationale: Intermittent claudication is ischemic muscle pain that occurs with activity
because oxygen demand exceeds the limited arterial blood supply. The pain
typically improves with rest. Peripheral arterial disease may also cause diminished
pulses, cool extremities, delayed capillary refill, and changes in skin appearance.
9. A client with deep vein thrombosis is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which
finding should the nurse report immediately?
A. Mild bruising at an injection site
B. Sudden shortness of breath and chest pain
Examination Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant Download
1. A nurse is assessing an adult client admitted with hypovolemia. Which
assessment finding is most consistent with decreased circulating blood
volume?
A. Bounding peripheral pulses
B. Bradycardia with hypertension
C. Tachycardia with decreased urine output
D. Warm, flushed skin
Answer: C. Tachycardia with decreased urine output
Rationale: Tachycardia is a compensatory response to reduced circulating volume
because the heart attempts to maintain cardiac output. Decreased renal perfusion
causes oliguria as the body conserves fluid. Bounding pulses and warm, flushed skin
are not typical findings of hypovolemia, while hypertension is generally inconsistent
with significant volume depletion.
2. A client with heart failure reports increasing shortness of breath and
difficulty breathing while lying flat. Which additional finding should the nurse
expect?
A. Peripheral cyanosis only
B. Crackles in the lung bases
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Dry mucous membranes
,Answer: B. Crackles in the lung bases
Rationale: Crackles occur when fluid accumulates in the alveoli and small airways,
commonly seen with pulmonary congestion associated with left-sided heart failure.
Orthopnea and dyspnea are also characteristic. The nurse should assess
oxygenation, respiratory status, fluid balance, and other signs of worsening heart
failure.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD). Which intervention is most appropriate for improving ventilation?
A. Encourage prolonged bed rest
B. Teach pursed-lip breathing
C. Administer excessive oxygen continuously
D. Encourage rapid shallow breathing
Answer: B. Teach pursed-lip breathing
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing helps keep the airways open during expiration,
reduces air trapping, and promotes more effective ventilation in clients with COPD.
The client should inhale slowly through the nose and exhale slowly through partially
closed lips. Oxygen should be administered carefully according to the prescribed
target because excessive oxygen in some clients with severe COPD can worsen
carbon dioxide retention.
4. A client is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires the
nurse's immediate attention?
A. Temperature of 38.2°C
B. Productive cough
C. Oxygen saturation of 86%
D. Fatigue during ambulation
Answer: C. Oxygen saturation of 86%
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 86% indicates significant hypoxemia and
requires immediate assessment and intervention. Airway and breathing take
priority. The nurse should assess respiratory effort, administer oxygen as prescribed,
,position the client to maximize ventilation, and promptly notify the appropriate
healthcare provider if hypoxemia persists. Fever, cough, and fatigue are common
manifestations of pneumonia but are not as immediately threatening as severe
hypoxemia.
5. A client with asthma develops wheezing, chest tightness, and difficulty
speaking in complete sentences. Which medication should the nurse
anticipate administering first for acute bronchospasm?
A. Albuterol
B. Warfarin
C. Furosemide
D. Omeprazole
Answer: A. Albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist that rapidly
produces bronchodilation and is commonly used as a rescue medication during an
acute asthma exacerbation. The nurse should also assess oxygenation, respiratory
effort, and response to treatment. Inability to speak in complete sentences can
indicate severe respiratory compromise and requires urgent intervention.
6. A nurse is assessing a client after a myocardial infarction. Which finding is
most concerning?
A. Mild anxiety
B. Occasional fatigue
C. New onset of ventricular dysrhythmia
D. Heart rate of 78 beats/minute
Answer: C. New onset of ventricular dysrhythmia
Rationale: Ventricular dysrhythmias can significantly reduce cardiac output and
may progress to ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Following
myocardial infarction, damaged myocardial tissue can disrupt electrical conduction.
The nurse should continuously monitor the cardiac rhythm and respond promptly to
potentially life-threatening dysrhythmias.
, 7. A client with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which statement
by the client indicates correct understanding?
A. "I can eat canned soups every day."
B. "I should read food labels for sodium content."
C. "Salt substitutes are always safe."
D. "Processed meats are recommended."
Answer: B. "I should read food labels for sodium content."
Rationale: Many processed, canned, packaged, and restaurant foods contain
substantial amounts of sodium. Reading nutrition labels helps clients identify high-
sodium foods and make appropriate dietary choices. Salt substitutes may contain
potassium and may be unsafe for clients taking certain medications or having renal
impairment, so they should be discussed with the healthcare provider.
8. A client with peripheral arterial disease reports severe calf pain when
walking that improves after resting. How should the nurse interpret this
finding?
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Venous stasis
C. Neuropathic pain
D. Acute compartment syndrome
Answer: A. Intermittent claudication
Rationale: Intermittent claudication is ischemic muscle pain that occurs with activity
because oxygen demand exceeds the limited arterial blood supply. The pain
typically improves with rest. Peripheral arterial disease may also cause diminished
pulses, cool extremities, delayed capillary refill, and changes in skin appearance.
9. A client with deep vein thrombosis is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which
finding should the nurse report immediately?
A. Mild bruising at an injection site
B. Sudden shortness of breath and chest pain
