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UT Arlington NURS 3320 Holistic Health Assessment Exam 3 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | Health Assessment Q&A | Nursing

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This document helps you master NURS 3320 Exam 3 via targeted Q&A with detailed rationales. It covers comprehensive health assessment of the head, neck, and regional lymphatics, along with in-depth evaluations of the eyes (including glaucoma and visual acuity tests) and ears (including the Weber and Rinne tests, otitis externa, and tophi). The material also addresses the nose, mouth, and throat, and integrates subjective and objective data collection across the lifespan. Additionally, it reviews advanced maternal-newborn and obstetric topics, such as the management of preeclampsia, eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, and preterm labor. Engineered to maximize retention and sharpen clinical judgment, this targeted test pack simplifies complex assessment content, saving you valuable preparation time and ensuring you secure an A on your NURS 3320 Exam 3 assessment.

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UT Arlington NURS 3320 Holistic Health Assessment Exam 3 (pdf) |
2026/2027 | Health Assessment Q&A | Nursing

1. A nurse is assessing a patient's neurologic system. Which of the following
is a component of the mental status examination?

A) Level of consciousness

B) Appearance and behavior

C) Speech and language

D) All of the above



Correct Answer: All of the above



Rationale: A complete mental status examination includes assessment of
level of consciousness, appearance and behavior, speech and language,
mood and affect, thought processes, and cognitive function. Each component
provides important information about the patient's neurologic and psychiatric
status.



2. The nurse is assessing a patient's level of consciousness using the
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). Which of the following is a component of the
GCS?

A) Eye opening

B) Verbal response

C) Motor response

D) All of the above



Correct Answer: All of the above



Rationale: The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses three areas: eye opening (1-4),
verbal response (1-5), and motor response (1-6). The total score ranges from
3 to 15, with lower scores indicating more severe neurologic impairment.

,3. A patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 7. This indicates:

A) Mild brain injury

B) Moderate brain injury

C) Severe brain injury

D) Normal neurologic function



Correct Answer: Severe brain injury



Rationale: A GCS score of 13-15 indicates mild injury, 9-12 indicates
moderate injury, and 3-8 indicates severe brain injury. A score of 8 or less
often requires intubation and indicates significant neurologic compromise.



4. The nurse is assessing a patient's speech. Which of the following is a
characteristic of expressive aphasia?

A) Difficulty understanding spoken language

B) Difficulty forming words or speaking fluently

C) Fluent but nonsensical speech

D) Difficulty with reading and writing only



Correct Answer: Difficulty forming words or speaking fluently



Rationale: Expressive aphasia (Broca's aphasia) is characterized by difficulty
forming words or speaking fluently, while comprehension remains intact.
Receptive aphasia (Wernicke's aphasia) is characterized by difficulty
understanding spoken language.



5. The nurse is assessing a patient's cranial nerves. Which cranial nerve is
responsible for the sense of smell?

,A) Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)

B) Cranial nerve II (Optic)

C) Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)

D) Cranial nerve IV (Trochlear)



Correct Answer: Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)



Rationale: Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell. It
is assessed by having the patient identify common odors with each nostril
separately.



6. Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?

A) Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)

B) Cranial nerve II (Optic)

C) Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)

D) Cranial nerve IV (Trochlear)



Correct Answer: Cranial nerve II (Optic)



Rationale: Cranial nerve II (Optic) is responsible for vision. It is assessed by
testing visual acuity (Snellen chart) and visual fields (confrontation test).



7. Which cranial nerve is responsible for lateral eye movement?

A) Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)

B) Cranial nerve IV (Trochlear)

C) Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)

D) Cranial nerve V (Trigeminal)

, Correct Answer: Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)



Rationale: Cranial nerve VI (Abducens) controls lateral (abduction)
movement of the eye. Cranial nerve III controls most eye movements, and
cranial nerve IV controls downward and inward movement.



8. The nurse is assessing a patient's extraocular movements (EOMs). Which
cranial nerves are being tested?

A) Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI

B) Cranial nerves II, III, and IV

C) Cranial nerves III, V, and VII

D) Cranial nerves IV, V, and VI



Correct Answer: Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI



Rationale: Extraocular movements are controlled by cranial nerves III
(Oculomotor), IV (Trochlear), and VI (Abducens). These nerves innervate the
six muscles that move the eye.



9. The nurse is assessing a patient's corneal reflex. Which cranial nerves are
being tested?

A) Cranial nerve V (Trigeminal) and Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

B) Cranial nerve II (Optic) and Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)

C) Cranial nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear) and Cranial nerve IX
(Glossopharyngeal)

D) Cranial nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal) and Cranial nerve X (Vagus)



Correct Answer: Cranial nerve V (Trigeminal) and Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

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