NURSING · CLINICAL PRACTICE
NSG 3100 Exam 3 Questions and Answers
2026/2027 | 100% Verified 2026/2027
A+
Comprehensive Content Review · Complete Domain Coverage
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CORE DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalances
Acid-Base Balance
Gas Exchange and Oxygenation
Perfusion and Circulatory Support
Neurological Function and Intracranial Regulation
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, Section: Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalances
Question 1
A 68-year-old client with heart failure is receiving furosemide 40 mg IV. Laboratory results show serum potassium 2.9 mEq/L.
The client reports muscle weakness and the ECG shows flattened T waves. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Hold the next dose of furosemide and notify the provider of hypokalemia.
B. Administer the scheduled furosemide and encourage oral fluid intake.
C. Increase the IV fluid rate to dilute the existing potassium level.
D. Document the findings as expected with loop diuretic therapy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L with muscle weakness and ECG changes indicates significant hypokalemia, a common adverse effect of loop
diuretics. Holding the diuretic and notifying the provider prevents further potassium loss and allows for replacement. Continuing the diuretic
would worsen the imbalance.
Question 2
A client admitted with severe diarrhea has a serum sodium of 128 mEq/L and is confused. The nurse reviews the care plan and
prioritizes which intervention?
A. Initiate seizure precautions and monitor neurological status frequently.
B. Encourage free-water intake to further dilute the serum sodium.
C. Administer a rapid 3% saline bolus without provider orders.
D. Restrict all oral fluids until sodium returns to normal range.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Hyponatremia with neurological changes places the client at risk for seizures. Seizure precautions and frequent neuro checks are essential.
Free-water intake would worsen hyponatremia, and hypertonic saline requires specific provider orders and careful monitoring.
Question 3
A postoperative client has a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mg/dL. The nurse notes hyperactive deep tendon reflexes and
reports of muscle cramps. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Prepare to administer intravenous magnesium sulfate as ordered.
B. Encourage the client to ambulate to reduce muscle cramping.
C. Administer a potassium-sparing diuretic to raise magnesium.
D. Document the findings and recheck the level in 24 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Magnesium 1.1 mg/dL is critically low and can progress to tetany or seizures. Intravenous replacement under monitoring is the priority.
Ambulation or delayed action does not address the acute deficit.
Question 4
A client with chronic kidney disease has a serum calcium of 7.2 mg/dL and phosphorus of 6.8 mg/dL. The nurse anticipates
which ordered intervention?
A. Administration of a phosphate binder with meals and calcium supplementation.
B. Increased dietary phosphorus and restriction of calcium-rich foods.
C. Immediate hemodialysis without further laboratory evaluation.
D. High-dose vitamin D without monitoring calcium levels.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
In CKD, hyperphosphatemia drives hypocalcemia. Phosphate binders taken with meals reduce absorption of dietary phosphorus, while calcium
supplementation helps correct the low calcium. Increasing phosphorus would worsen the imbalance.
NSG 3100 Exam 3 | 2026/2027 Page 2
NSG 3100 Exam 3 Questions and Answers
2026/2027 | 100% Verified 2026/2027
A+
Comprehensive Content Review · Complete Domain Coverage
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CORE DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalances
Acid-Base Balance
Gas Exchange and Oxygenation
Perfusion and Circulatory Support
Neurological Function and Intracranial Regulation
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, Section: Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalances
Question 1
A 68-year-old client with heart failure is receiving furosemide 40 mg IV. Laboratory results show serum potassium 2.9 mEq/L.
The client reports muscle weakness and the ECG shows flattened T waves. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Hold the next dose of furosemide and notify the provider of hypokalemia.
B. Administer the scheduled furosemide and encourage oral fluid intake.
C. Increase the IV fluid rate to dilute the existing potassium level.
D. Document the findings as expected with loop diuretic therapy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L with muscle weakness and ECG changes indicates significant hypokalemia, a common adverse effect of loop
diuretics. Holding the diuretic and notifying the provider prevents further potassium loss and allows for replacement. Continuing the diuretic
would worsen the imbalance.
Question 2
A client admitted with severe diarrhea has a serum sodium of 128 mEq/L and is confused. The nurse reviews the care plan and
prioritizes which intervention?
A. Initiate seizure precautions and monitor neurological status frequently.
B. Encourage free-water intake to further dilute the serum sodium.
C. Administer a rapid 3% saline bolus without provider orders.
D. Restrict all oral fluids until sodium returns to normal range.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Hyponatremia with neurological changes places the client at risk for seizures. Seizure precautions and frequent neuro checks are essential.
Free-water intake would worsen hyponatremia, and hypertonic saline requires specific provider orders and careful monitoring.
Question 3
A postoperative client has a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mg/dL. The nurse notes hyperactive deep tendon reflexes and
reports of muscle cramps. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Prepare to administer intravenous magnesium sulfate as ordered.
B. Encourage the client to ambulate to reduce muscle cramping.
C. Administer a potassium-sparing diuretic to raise magnesium.
D. Document the findings and recheck the level in 24 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Magnesium 1.1 mg/dL is critically low and can progress to tetany or seizures. Intravenous replacement under monitoring is the priority.
Ambulation or delayed action does not address the acute deficit.
Question 4
A client with chronic kidney disease has a serum calcium of 7.2 mg/dL and phosphorus of 6.8 mg/dL. The nurse anticipates
which ordered intervention?
A. Administration of a phosphate binder with meals and calcium supplementation.
B. Increased dietary phosphorus and restriction of calcium-rich foods.
C. Immediate hemodialysis without further laboratory evaluation.
D. High-dose vitamin D without monitoring calcium levels.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
In CKD, hyperphosphatemia drives hypocalcemia. Phosphate binders taken with meals reduce absorption of dietary phosphorus, while calcium
supplementation helps correct the low calcium. Increasing phosphorus would worsen the imbalance.
NSG 3100 Exam 3 | 2026/2027 Page 2
