HESI PHARMACOLOGY
V1 EXAM (3 Full Set Exams)
NCLEX (NGN), & Case-based Scenarios
Actual Qs & Ans to Pass the Exam
This hesi test contains:
passing score Guarantee
Each Exam has 55 Ques and Ans
Format Set of Multiple-choice
questions with incorporating Next Generation
NCLEX (NGN) and Case studies questions
Expert-Verified Explanations & Solutions
, Preview Questions Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any study
resources, feel free to Message me."
,───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
Contents
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V1 EXAM............................................................. 2
SET 1 ............................................................................................................. 2
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V1 EXAM........................................................... 31
SET 2 ........................................................................................................... 31
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V1 EXAM........................................................... 57
SET 3 ........................................................................................................... 57
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V1 EXAM
SET 1
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
1) A client taking atorvastatin develops an increased serum creatine
phosphokinase (CK) level. The nurse should assess the client for the
onset of which problem?
A. Muscle tenderness
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Excessive bruising
D. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: A. Muscle tenderness
,Verified Rationale:
• Statins (e.g., atorvastatin) can cause myopathy, which may progress to
rhabdomyolysis in severe cases. An elevated CK level often signifies
muscle injury. Muscle tenderness, especially in large muscle groups, is one
of the earliest clinical signs of myopathy. If untreated, severe myopathy can
become life-threatening.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
2) An increase in which serum laboratory value indicates to the nurse
that a prescription for atorvastatin is having the desired effect for a
client at risk for coronary artery disease?
A. LDL (Low-density lipoprotein)
B. Triglycerides
C. HDL (High-density lipoprotein)
D. VLDL (Very low-density lipoprotein)
Correct Answer: C. HDL (High-density lipoprotein)
Verified Rationale:
• Atorvastatin lowers LDL primarily but can also modestly raise HDL (“good
cholesterol”). An increase in HDL is protective and a sign that therapy is
working. Therapeutic success can also include a decrease in LDL.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
3) [NGN - Case Study]
Patient Data — History & Physical:
• 36-year-old female with moderate persistent asthma on
fluticasone/salmeterol twice daily, albuterol as needed
• Reports more severe symptoms, frequent albuterol use, FEV₁ of 60–65%
• Complaints: dizziness, palpitations, no wheezes, O₂ sat 99%
,Tasks:
1) Identify the likely condition.
2) State two actions to take.
3) State two parameters to monitor.
Likely Condition: Methemoglobinemia
Actions to Take (two examples):
• Draw blood for a CBC
• Administer methylene blue
Parameters to Monitor (two examples):
• Methemoglobin level
• Heart rate and rhythm
Verified Rationale:
• Methemoglobin forms when hemoglobin is oxidized and cannot carry O₂
effectively. Patients can present with dizziness, palpitations, and normal
pulse oximetry readings despite feeling unwell. Methylene blue is the
antidote. Heart rate/rhythm should be monitored because hypoxia can
affect cardiac status.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
4) A client prescribed gabapentin 300 mg by mouth three times a day
for postherpetic neuralgia is being discharged. Which symptoms
should the nurse tell the client to report immediately to the healthcare
provider?
A. Sexual dysfunction
B. Gastric irritation
C. Rapid weight gain
D. Photosensitivity
Correct Answer: B. Gastric irritation
,Verified Rationale:
• Gabapentin commonly causes gastrointestinal upset (e.g., nausea,
dyspepsia). Significant or prolonged GI irritation warrants provider
notification. Adjustments in dosage or medication administration time may
be needed to ensure compliance and comfort.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
5) A client with chronic lower back pain has been taking the NSAID
ibuprofen twice daily for several months. Which assessment is most
important for the nurse to complete?
A. Assess back pain using a numeric scale
B. Palpate the volume of pedal pulses
C. Determine presence of abdominal pain
D. Evaluate ongoing sleep patterns
Correct Answer: C. Determine presence of abdominal pain
Verified Rationale:
• Chronic NSAID therapy (like ibuprofen) increases the risk of peptic ulcer
disease and GI bleeding. Abdominal pain can be an early indicator.
Teaching the client about recognizing signs such as black, tarry stools or
discomfort in the epigastric region is essential.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
6) The nurse administers risedronate at 0700 to a client with
osteoporosis. The client requests milk to drink with the medication.
Which action should the nurse take?
A. Instruct the client that only water is permitted with the medication
B. Assign a UAP to bring a glass of low-fat milk
C. Withhold the medication until the client’s breakfast arrives
,D. Consult with the pharmacist about scheduling the dose one hour after
the client eats
Correct Answer: A. Instruct the client that only water is permitted with the
medication
Verified Rationale:
• Risedronate and other bisphosphonates must be taken with plain water
on an empty stomach. Food or other beverages, including milk, interfere
with absorption and increase the risk of esophageal irritation. The client
should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the drug.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
7) Which action should the nurse implement to assess the
effectiveness of the calcium channel blocker amlodipine?
A. Note the client’s serum calcium levels
B. Monitor the client’s serum electrolytes
C. Review the client’s intake and output
D. Measure the client’s blood pressure
Correct Answer: D. Measure the client’s blood pressure
Verified Rationale:
• Amlodipine is primarily prescribed for hypertension. Its direct effect is to
lower blood pressure via vasodilation. Checking BP is the best way to
measure its clinical effectiveness.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
8) A client is receiving tamsulosin for benign prostatic hyperplasia
(BPH). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
A. Use a twice-a-week dosing schedule
,B. Stand and sit up slowly
C. Take the medication early in the day
D. Reduce daily fluid intake
Correct Answer: B. Stand and sit up slowly
Verified Rationale:
• Tamsulosin can cause alpha-1 blockade leading to orthostatic
hypotension and dizziness when changing positions. Teaching the client to
rise slowly can prevent falls. Adequate fluid intake remains an important
aspect of overall health unless otherwise contraindicated.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
9) A client with chemotherapy-induced nausea has been prescribed
metoclopramide. Which adverse effect is most important to report?
A. Nausea
B. Involuntary movements
C. Diarrhea
D. Unusual irritability
Correct Answer: B. Involuntary movements
Verified Rationale:
• Metoclopramide can cause extrapyramidal side effects, such as tardive
dyskinesia (lip-smacking, facial grimacing, tongue protrusion) or acute
dystonia. These signs should be reported immediately, as they can become
permanent if not addressed.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
10) A client is receiving orlistat for weight management. Which
ongoing assessment should be used to determine the medication’s
effectiveness?
,A. Body mass index
B. Depression screening
C. Daily calorie count
D. Serum protein levels
Correct Answer: A. Body mass index (BMI)
Verified Rationale:
• Orlistat reduces fat absorption, aiding in weight loss. Monitoring weight or
calculating BMI is the most direct and objective measure of therapeutic
effectiveness.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
11) Before administering the initial dose of sumatriptan succinate to a client
with migraine headaches, it is most important to confirm that the client does
not have a history of:
A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
B. Seasonal allergic rhinitis
C. Irritable bowel syndrome
D. Coronary artery disease
Correct Answer: D. Coronary artery disease
Verified Rationale:
• Sumatriptan’s mechanism involves constriction of cranial blood vessels. In
clients with coronary artery disease, this vasoconstrictive action could
precipitate serious cardiac ischemia or coronary spasm.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
12) A client receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin 400 mg IV every
12 hours to be infused over 1 hour. The IV bag has ciprofloxacin 400
, mg in 200 mL of D5W. How many mL/hr should the nurse program the
pump to deliver?
Correct Answer: 200 mL/hr
Verified Rationale:
• 200 mL infused over 60 minutes → 200 mL/hr. This ensures appropriate
therapeutic levels and minimizes complications.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
13) Before administering a laxative to a bedfast client, the nurse should
first:
A. Determine the frequency and consistency of bowel movements
B. Observe the skin integrity of the rectal and sacral areas
C. Assess the client’s strength in moving and turning
D. Evaluate the client’s ability to recognize the urge to defecate
Correct Answer: A. Determine the frequency and consistency of bowel
movements
Verified Rationale:
• Administering laxatives should be done carefully to avoid diarrhea,
dehydration, or electrolyte imbalances. Assessing the client’s baseline
bowel pattern ensures it is truly needed.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
14) A client who takes methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis is
prescribed adalimumab. Which instructions are necessary?
A. Have a chest x-ray before your first dose
B. Avoid crowds and sick contacts
C. Obtain routine vaccinations on schedule
V1 EXAM (3 Full Set Exams)
NCLEX (NGN), & Case-based Scenarios
Actual Qs & Ans to Pass the Exam
This hesi test contains:
passing score Guarantee
Each Exam has 55 Ques and Ans
Format Set of Multiple-choice
questions with incorporating Next Generation
NCLEX (NGN) and Case studies questions
Expert-Verified Explanations & Solutions
, Preview Questions Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any study
resources, feel free to Message me."
,───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
Contents
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V1 EXAM............................................................. 2
SET 1 ............................................................................................................. 2
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V1 EXAM........................................................... 31
SET 2 ........................................................................................................... 31
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V1 EXAM........................................................... 57
SET 3 ........................................................................................................... 57
HESI PHARMACOLOGY V1 EXAM
SET 1
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
1) A client taking atorvastatin develops an increased serum creatine
phosphokinase (CK) level. The nurse should assess the client for the
onset of which problem?
A. Muscle tenderness
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Excessive bruising
D. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: A. Muscle tenderness
,Verified Rationale:
• Statins (e.g., atorvastatin) can cause myopathy, which may progress to
rhabdomyolysis in severe cases. An elevated CK level often signifies
muscle injury. Muscle tenderness, especially in large muscle groups, is one
of the earliest clinical signs of myopathy. If untreated, severe myopathy can
become life-threatening.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
2) An increase in which serum laboratory value indicates to the nurse
that a prescription for atorvastatin is having the desired effect for a
client at risk for coronary artery disease?
A. LDL (Low-density lipoprotein)
B. Triglycerides
C. HDL (High-density lipoprotein)
D. VLDL (Very low-density lipoprotein)
Correct Answer: C. HDL (High-density lipoprotein)
Verified Rationale:
• Atorvastatin lowers LDL primarily but can also modestly raise HDL (“good
cholesterol”). An increase in HDL is protective and a sign that therapy is
working. Therapeutic success can also include a decrease in LDL.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
3) [NGN - Case Study]
Patient Data — History & Physical:
• 36-year-old female with moderate persistent asthma on
fluticasone/salmeterol twice daily, albuterol as needed
• Reports more severe symptoms, frequent albuterol use, FEV₁ of 60–65%
• Complaints: dizziness, palpitations, no wheezes, O₂ sat 99%
,Tasks:
1) Identify the likely condition.
2) State two actions to take.
3) State two parameters to monitor.
Likely Condition: Methemoglobinemia
Actions to Take (two examples):
• Draw blood for a CBC
• Administer methylene blue
Parameters to Monitor (two examples):
• Methemoglobin level
• Heart rate and rhythm
Verified Rationale:
• Methemoglobin forms when hemoglobin is oxidized and cannot carry O₂
effectively. Patients can present with dizziness, palpitations, and normal
pulse oximetry readings despite feeling unwell. Methylene blue is the
antidote. Heart rate/rhythm should be monitored because hypoxia can
affect cardiac status.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
4) A client prescribed gabapentin 300 mg by mouth three times a day
for postherpetic neuralgia is being discharged. Which symptoms
should the nurse tell the client to report immediately to the healthcare
provider?
A. Sexual dysfunction
B. Gastric irritation
C. Rapid weight gain
D. Photosensitivity
Correct Answer: B. Gastric irritation
,Verified Rationale:
• Gabapentin commonly causes gastrointestinal upset (e.g., nausea,
dyspepsia). Significant or prolonged GI irritation warrants provider
notification. Adjustments in dosage or medication administration time may
be needed to ensure compliance and comfort.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
5) A client with chronic lower back pain has been taking the NSAID
ibuprofen twice daily for several months. Which assessment is most
important for the nurse to complete?
A. Assess back pain using a numeric scale
B. Palpate the volume of pedal pulses
C. Determine presence of abdominal pain
D. Evaluate ongoing sleep patterns
Correct Answer: C. Determine presence of abdominal pain
Verified Rationale:
• Chronic NSAID therapy (like ibuprofen) increases the risk of peptic ulcer
disease and GI bleeding. Abdominal pain can be an early indicator.
Teaching the client about recognizing signs such as black, tarry stools or
discomfort in the epigastric region is essential.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
6) The nurse administers risedronate at 0700 to a client with
osteoporosis. The client requests milk to drink with the medication.
Which action should the nurse take?
A. Instruct the client that only water is permitted with the medication
B. Assign a UAP to bring a glass of low-fat milk
C. Withhold the medication until the client’s breakfast arrives
,D. Consult with the pharmacist about scheduling the dose one hour after
the client eats
Correct Answer: A. Instruct the client that only water is permitted with the
medication
Verified Rationale:
• Risedronate and other bisphosphonates must be taken with plain water
on an empty stomach. Food or other beverages, including milk, interfere
with absorption and increase the risk of esophageal irritation. The client
should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the drug.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
7) Which action should the nurse implement to assess the
effectiveness of the calcium channel blocker amlodipine?
A. Note the client’s serum calcium levels
B. Monitor the client’s serum electrolytes
C. Review the client’s intake and output
D. Measure the client’s blood pressure
Correct Answer: D. Measure the client’s blood pressure
Verified Rationale:
• Amlodipine is primarily prescribed for hypertension. Its direct effect is to
lower blood pressure via vasodilation. Checking BP is the best way to
measure its clinical effectiveness.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
8) A client is receiving tamsulosin for benign prostatic hyperplasia
(BPH). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
A. Use a twice-a-week dosing schedule
,B. Stand and sit up slowly
C. Take the medication early in the day
D. Reduce daily fluid intake
Correct Answer: B. Stand and sit up slowly
Verified Rationale:
• Tamsulosin can cause alpha-1 blockade leading to orthostatic
hypotension and dizziness when changing positions. Teaching the client to
rise slowly can prevent falls. Adequate fluid intake remains an important
aspect of overall health unless otherwise contraindicated.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
9) A client with chemotherapy-induced nausea has been prescribed
metoclopramide. Which adverse effect is most important to report?
A. Nausea
B. Involuntary movements
C. Diarrhea
D. Unusual irritability
Correct Answer: B. Involuntary movements
Verified Rationale:
• Metoclopramide can cause extrapyramidal side effects, such as tardive
dyskinesia (lip-smacking, facial grimacing, tongue protrusion) or acute
dystonia. These signs should be reported immediately, as they can become
permanent if not addressed.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
10) A client is receiving orlistat for weight management. Which
ongoing assessment should be used to determine the medication’s
effectiveness?
,A. Body mass index
B. Depression screening
C. Daily calorie count
D. Serum protein levels
Correct Answer: A. Body mass index (BMI)
Verified Rationale:
• Orlistat reduces fat absorption, aiding in weight loss. Monitoring weight or
calculating BMI is the most direct and objective measure of therapeutic
effectiveness.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
11) Before administering the initial dose of sumatriptan succinate to a client
with migraine headaches, it is most important to confirm that the client does
not have a history of:
A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
B. Seasonal allergic rhinitis
C. Irritable bowel syndrome
D. Coronary artery disease
Correct Answer: D. Coronary artery disease
Verified Rationale:
• Sumatriptan’s mechanism involves constriction of cranial blood vessels. In
clients with coronary artery disease, this vasoconstrictive action could
precipitate serious cardiac ischemia or coronary spasm.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
12) A client receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin 400 mg IV every
12 hours to be infused over 1 hour. The IV bag has ciprofloxacin 400
, mg in 200 mL of D5W. How many mL/hr should the nurse program the
pump to deliver?
Correct Answer: 200 mL/hr
Verified Rationale:
• 200 mL infused over 60 minutes → 200 mL/hr. This ensures appropriate
therapeutic levels and minimizes complications.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
13) Before administering a laxative to a bedfast client, the nurse should
first:
A. Determine the frequency and consistency of bowel movements
B. Observe the skin integrity of the rectal and sacral areas
C. Assess the client’s strength in moving and turning
D. Evaluate the client’s ability to recognize the urge to defecate
Correct Answer: A. Determine the frequency and consistency of bowel
movements
Verified Rationale:
• Administering laxatives should be done carefully to avoid diarrhea,
dehydration, or electrolyte imbalances. Assessing the client’s baseline
bowel pattern ensures it is truly needed.
───────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────
14) A client who takes methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis is
prescribed adalimumab. Which instructions are necessary?
A. Have a chest x-ray before your first dose
B. Avoid crowds and sick contacts
C. Obtain routine vaccinations on schedule
