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NRSG 2350 Final Exam – Northeastern University EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS LATEST
UPDATE THIS YEAR – JUST RELEASED
NRSG 2350 Final Exam – Northeastern University
10-Line Exam Coverage in Points Form
1. Exam Logistics & Structure – 75 questions total: 45 new content (Modules 9-11) + 30
cumulative (Modules 1-8); multiple choice and select-all-that-apply (SATA) format; 90-
minute time limit; generic drug names only
2. Endocrine System (Module 9) – Endocrine feedback mechanisms (negative vs. positive);
pituitary disorders (acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, diabetes insipidus); thyroid disorders
(Graves’ disease, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis); diabetes mellitus pathophysiology and
management
3. Diabetes Pharmacology – Insulins (types, onset/peak/duration, storage, rotation sites);
metformin (GI side effects, lactic acidosis risk); glucagon (given SC/IM/IV for severe
hypoglycemia); sulfonylureas; SLGT2 inhibitors
4. Gastrointestinal Disorders (Module 10) – Nausea/vomiting etiology (VOMITING/CAUSES
mnemonics); diarrhea mechanisms; GI motility disorders; antiemetic agents; peptic ulcer
disease; GERD
5. Hepatic & Biliary Disorders – Liver function tests interpretation; hepatitis
pathophysiology; cirrhosis complications; portal hypertension; drug metabolism
alterations in liver disease
6. Hematologic Disorders & Medications – Anemia types (iron deficiency, pernicious);
ferrous sulfate (absorption, constipation side effect); cyanocobalamin; erythropoietin
(epoetin alfa); heparin monitoring (aPTT); warfarin (INR, vitamin K consistency); DOACs
(apixaban, factor Xa inhibition); HIT treatment (argatroban)
7. Immune System & Hypersensitivity – Type I (anaphylaxis, IgE-mediated); Type II
(cytotoxic, blood transfusion reactions); Type III (immune complex, SLE
glomerulonephritis); Type IV (delayed cell-mediated); WBC differentials (eosinophils for
parasites/allergies)
8. Fluid, Electrolyte & Acid-Base Balance – Hypomagnesemia signs (hyperreflexia, muscle
twitching); hyperkalemia in DKA (potassium shifting extracellular); respiratory acidosis
(PaCO2 >45, hypoventilation, COPD); metabolic acidosis
9. Pathophysiology Integration – Disease process framework: pathophysiology (normal
process disruption, acute/chronic), manifestations (signs/symptoms), treatments
(pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic); risk factors; diagnostic testing
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10. Pharmacology & Nursing Process – Mechanism of action; therapeutic use; nursing
process (pre-administration assessment, monitoring, patient education); adverse effects
(common vs. high-risk); off-label uses; dietary considerations (e.g., vitamin K consistency
with warfarin)
60 MCQ Questions with Rationales
1. A patient is brought to the emergency department with confusion, polyuria, and excessive
thirst. A random blood glucose is 280 mg/dL. The nurse recognizes this presentation is most
consistent with:
A) Type 2 diabetes with asymptomatic hyperglycemia
B) Diabetic ketoacidosis with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia
C) Diabetes insipidus from pituitary dysfunction
D) Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The classic triad of symptomatic hyperglycemia includes polyuria, polydipsia
(excessive thirst), and weight loss. A random blood glucose ≥200 mg/dL with symptoms
establishes a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Most patients with type 1 diabetes present with
symptomatic hyperglycemia and plasma glucose well above 200 mg/dL .
2. A patient with type 2 diabetes has a fasting plasma glucose of 132 mg/dL. The nurse
understands this value is diagnostic of diabetes because:
A) Fasting glucose ≥100 mg/dL indicates prediabetes
B) Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL on two occasions confirms diabetes
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C) Random glucose ≥200 mg/dL with symptoms is required for diagnosis
D) Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL with no caloric intake for 8+ hours is diagnostic
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The diagnosis of diabetes in an asymptomatic individual can be established with a
fasting plasma glucose (FPG) ≥126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L). Fasting is defined as no caloric intake for
at least eight hours. This criterion applies to individuals without classic symptoms of
hyperglycemia .
3. A patient prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes reports gastrointestinal distress. The
nurse should advise the patient to:
A) Discontinue the medication immediately
B) Take the medication on an empty stomach to improve absorption
C) Take the medication with food to reduce GI upset
D) Increase the dose to build tolerance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metformin commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects including nausea, diarrhea,
and abdominal discomfort. Taking the medication with food can help minimize these symptoms.
Alcohol intake in excess can lead to an adverse reaction with metformin, increasing the risk of
lactic acidosis .
4. A patient with type 1 diabetes is found unresponsive with a blood glucose of 32 mg/dL. The
nurse should prepare to administer:
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A) Oral glucose gel
B) Subcutaneous insulin
C) Glucagon intramuscularly
D) Intravenous dextrose only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Glucagon is a hormone produced by the alpha cells of the pancreas that increases
blood glucose. It is used to treat insulin-induced hypoglycemia when the patient is
semiconscious or unconscious and unable to ingest liquids. Glucagon can be given
subcutaneously, intramuscularly, or intravenously, with blood glucose levels increasing 5-20
minutes after administration .
5. A nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes about insulin administration. Which statement
indicates correct understanding?
A) "I should always keep my insulin vial in the refrigerator."
B) "I can inject insulin into my abdomen, thighs, or upper arms."
C) "Massaging the injection site will slow absorption."
D) "I should use the exact same site each time for consistency."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin can be injected subcutaneously into the abdomen, posterior upper arm,
anterior thigh, or hips. Sites should be rotated to prevent lipodystrophy and promote more even
absorption. Absorption can be increased by heat, massage, and exercise of the injected area,
NRSG 2350 Final Exam – Northeastern University EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS LATEST
UPDATE THIS YEAR – JUST RELEASED
NRSG 2350 Final Exam – Northeastern University
10-Line Exam Coverage in Points Form
1. Exam Logistics & Structure – 75 questions total: 45 new content (Modules 9-11) + 30
cumulative (Modules 1-8); multiple choice and select-all-that-apply (SATA) format; 90-
minute time limit; generic drug names only
2. Endocrine System (Module 9) – Endocrine feedback mechanisms (negative vs. positive);
pituitary disorders (acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, diabetes insipidus); thyroid disorders
(Graves’ disease, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis); diabetes mellitus pathophysiology and
management
3. Diabetes Pharmacology – Insulins (types, onset/peak/duration, storage, rotation sites);
metformin (GI side effects, lactic acidosis risk); glucagon (given SC/IM/IV for severe
hypoglycemia); sulfonylureas; SLGT2 inhibitors
4. Gastrointestinal Disorders (Module 10) – Nausea/vomiting etiology (VOMITING/CAUSES
mnemonics); diarrhea mechanisms; GI motility disorders; antiemetic agents; peptic ulcer
disease; GERD
5. Hepatic & Biliary Disorders – Liver function tests interpretation; hepatitis
pathophysiology; cirrhosis complications; portal hypertension; drug metabolism
alterations in liver disease
6. Hematologic Disorders & Medications – Anemia types (iron deficiency, pernicious);
ferrous sulfate (absorption, constipation side effect); cyanocobalamin; erythropoietin
(epoetin alfa); heparin monitoring (aPTT); warfarin (INR, vitamin K consistency); DOACs
(apixaban, factor Xa inhibition); HIT treatment (argatroban)
7. Immune System & Hypersensitivity – Type I (anaphylaxis, IgE-mediated); Type II
(cytotoxic, blood transfusion reactions); Type III (immune complex, SLE
glomerulonephritis); Type IV (delayed cell-mediated); WBC differentials (eosinophils for
parasites/allergies)
8. Fluid, Electrolyte & Acid-Base Balance – Hypomagnesemia signs (hyperreflexia, muscle
twitching); hyperkalemia in DKA (potassium shifting extracellular); respiratory acidosis
(PaCO2 >45, hypoventilation, COPD); metabolic acidosis
9. Pathophysiology Integration – Disease process framework: pathophysiology (normal
process disruption, acute/chronic), manifestations (signs/symptoms), treatments
(pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic); risk factors; diagnostic testing
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10. Pharmacology & Nursing Process – Mechanism of action; therapeutic use; nursing
process (pre-administration assessment, monitoring, patient education); adverse effects
(common vs. high-risk); off-label uses; dietary considerations (e.g., vitamin K consistency
with warfarin)
60 MCQ Questions with Rationales
1. A patient is brought to the emergency department with confusion, polyuria, and excessive
thirst. A random blood glucose is 280 mg/dL. The nurse recognizes this presentation is most
consistent with:
A) Type 2 diabetes with asymptomatic hyperglycemia
B) Diabetic ketoacidosis with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia
C) Diabetes insipidus from pituitary dysfunction
D) Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The classic triad of symptomatic hyperglycemia includes polyuria, polydipsia
(excessive thirst), and weight loss. A random blood glucose ≥200 mg/dL with symptoms
establishes a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Most patients with type 1 diabetes present with
symptomatic hyperglycemia and plasma glucose well above 200 mg/dL .
2. A patient with type 2 diabetes has a fasting plasma glucose of 132 mg/dL. The nurse
understands this value is diagnostic of diabetes because:
A) Fasting glucose ≥100 mg/dL indicates prediabetes
B) Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL on two occasions confirms diabetes
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C) Random glucose ≥200 mg/dL with symptoms is required for diagnosis
D) Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dL with no caloric intake for 8+ hours is diagnostic
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The diagnosis of diabetes in an asymptomatic individual can be established with a
fasting plasma glucose (FPG) ≥126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L). Fasting is defined as no caloric intake for
at least eight hours. This criterion applies to individuals without classic symptoms of
hyperglycemia .
3. A patient prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes reports gastrointestinal distress. The
nurse should advise the patient to:
A) Discontinue the medication immediately
B) Take the medication on an empty stomach to improve absorption
C) Take the medication with food to reduce GI upset
D) Increase the dose to build tolerance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metformin commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects including nausea, diarrhea,
and abdominal discomfort. Taking the medication with food can help minimize these symptoms.
Alcohol intake in excess can lead to an adverse reaction with metformin, increasing the risk of
lactic acidosis .
4. A patient with type 1 diabetes is found unresponsive with a blood glucose of 32 mg/dL. The
nurse should prepare to administer:
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A) Oral glucose gel
B) Subcutaneous insulin
C) Glucagon intramuscularly
D) Intravenous dextrose only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Glucagon is a hormone produced by the alpha cells of the pancreas that increases
blood glucose. It is used to treat insulin-induced hypoglycemia when the patient is
semiconscious or unconscious and unable to ingest liquids. Glucagon can be given
subcutaneously, intramuscularly, or intravenously, with blood glucose levels increasing 5-20
minutes after administration .
5. A nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes about insulin administration. Which statement
indicates correct understanding?
A) "I should always keep my insulin vial in the refrigerator."
B) "I can inject insulin into my abdomen, thighs, or upper arms."
C) "Massaging the injection site will slow absorption."
D) "I should use the exact same site each time for consistency."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin can be injected subcutaneously into the abdomen, posterior upper arm,
anterior thigh, or hips. Sites should be rotated to prevent lipodystrophy and promote more even
absorption. Absorption can be increased by heat, massage, and exercise of the injected area,
