Certified in Infection Control (CIC®) Exam: 200
Practice Questions with Answers and Rationales
Most Recent Exam Actual Complete Real Exam
Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Already Graded A+ | Guaranteed Success!! Newest
Exam | Just Released!!
This comprehensive question bank is aligned with the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology
(CBIC) exam blueprint. The CIC® exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (135 scored, 15 unscored pretest
items) with a 3-hour time limit. The 2026 blueprint features 85 scored items distributed across 8 domains with a
shift toward applied, hands-on practice.
Exam Domains (2026 Blueprint)
Scored
Domain Focus
Items
I. Identification of Infectious Disease Recognize, identify, differentiate infectious diseases; stewardship;
14 items
Processes emerging threats
II. Surveillance & Epidemiologic
17 items Risk assessment, data collection, outbreak investigation
Investigation
Standard/Transmission-Based Precautions, stewardship, emergenc
III. Preventing/Controlling Transmission 14 items
preparedness
1
, Scored
Domain Focus
Items
IV. Employee/Occupational Health 7 items Exposures, education, follow-up
V. Management & Communication 7 items QI tools, communication, reporting
VI. Education & Research 6 items Feedback, assessing effectiveness, reporting findings
VII. Environment of Care 10 items Monitoring, collaborating, evaluating cleaning practices
VIII. Cleaning, Disinfection, Sterilization 10 items Identify methods, assist with reviews, audits
DOMAIN I: IDENTIFICATION OF INFECTIOUS DISEASE PROCESSES (Questions 1-35)
This domain focuses on interpreting diagnostic reports, specimen collection, correlating clinical signs/symptoms,
differentiating colonization vs. infection, antimicrobial stewardship, and assessing risk factors.
1. A wound culture grows Staphylococcus aureus in a patient with no signs of infection (no
fever, no redness, no purulent drainage). This is best described as:
A. Infection
B. Colonization
C. Contamination
D. Pseudo-infection
Correct Answer: B. Colonization
Rationale: Colonization refers to the presence of microorganisms on a body surface without
causing tissue damage or an immune response. Infection requires clinical signs and symptoms.
Contamination refers to microorganisms present in a specimen from an external source.
2. A patient develops fever, chills, and hypotension 48 hours after a central line insertion.
Blood cultures are obtained. The most appropriate empiric antimicrobial therapy should be
initiated:
2
, A. After culture results are available
B. Immediately after blood cultures are drawn
C. After consulting infectious disease only
D. After 24 hours of observation
Correct Answer: B. Immediately after blood cultures are drawn
Rationale: Empiric antimicrobial therapy should be initiated promptly after obtaining
appropriate cultures. Delaying treatment in a patient with signs of sepsis can increase mortality.
Antimicrobials should be narrowed based on culture results.
3. Which of the following is the correct order of steps for collecting a wound culture?
A. Cleanse wound, collect specimen from wound bed, transport in appropriate media
B. Collect specimen first, then cleanse wound
C. Cleanse wound, collect from wound edges only
D. Collect pus from the surface only
Correct Answer: A. Cleanse wound, collect specimen from wound bed, transport in
appropriate media
Rationale: Proper wound culture technique involves cleansing the wound to remove surface
contaminants, then collecting a specimen from the wound bed (not surface pus or wound
edges) using sterile technique, and transporting in appropriate media.
4. A patient presents with fever, cough, and chest X-ray showing infiltrates. Sputum Gram
stain shows gram-positive cocci in pairs and chains. Which organism is most likely?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Rationale: S. pneumoniae is a gram-positive coccus that appears in pairs (diplococci) or chains.
It is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. S. aureus appears in clusters, H.
influenzae is a gram-negative coccobacillus, and P. aeruginosa is a gram-negative rod.
3
, 5. The prophylactic use of antimicrobials is defined as:
A. Treatment of an established infection
B. Administration before an infection develops to prevent it
C. Treatment based on clinical suspicion before culture results
D. Treatment of a non-infectious condition
Correct Answer: B. Administration before an infection develops to prevent it
Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobials are given to prevent infection before it occurs (e.g.,
surgical prophylaxis). Empiric therapy is initiated based on clinical suspicion before culture
results. Therapeutic use treats established infection.
6. A patient with a urinary catheter develops fever and cloudy urine. Urinalysis shows
>100,000 CFU/mL of a single organism with positive leukocyte esterase. This represents:
A. Asymptomatic bacteriuria
B. Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)
C. Contamination of the urine specimen
D. Colonization of the urinary tract
Correct Answer: B. Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)
Rationale: CAUTI is defined by the presence of clinical signs/symptoms (fever) and a positive
urine culture (>100,000 CFU/mL) in a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter. Asymptomatic
bacteriuria lacks symptoms. Contamination would show multiple organisms or low colony
counts.
7. A patient returns from international travel with fever, abdominal pain, and jaundice. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
Correct Answer: A. Hepatitis A
Rationale: Hepatitis A is transmitted via the fecal-oral route and is associated with international
travel, especially to developing countries. Hepatitis B, C, and D are transmitted through blood
and body fluids, not typically associated with travel-related outbreaks.
4
Practice Questions with Answers and Rationales
Most Recent Exam Actual Complete Real Exam
Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Already Graded A+ | Guaranteed Success!! Newest
Exam | Just Released!!
This comprehensive question bank is aligned with the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology
(CBIC) exam blueprint. The CIC® exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (135 scored, 15 unscored pretest
items) with a 3-hour time limit. The 2026 blueprint features 85 scored items distributed across 8 domains with a
shift toward applied, hands-on practice.
Exam Domains (2026 Blueprint)
Scored
Domain Focus
Items
I. Identification of Infectious Disease Recognize, identify, differentiate infectious diseases; stewardship;
14 items
Processes emerging threats
II. Surveillance & Epidemiologic
17 items Risk assessment, data collection, outbreak investigation
Investigation
Standard/Transmission-Based Precautions, stewardship, emergenc
III. Preventing/Controlling Transmission 14 items
preparedness
1
, Scored
Domain Focus
Items
IV. Employee/Occupational Health 7 items Exposures, education, follow-up
V. Management & Communication 7 items QI tools, communication, reporting
VI. Education & Research 6 items Feedback, assessing effectiveness, reporting findings
VII. Environment of Care 10 items Monitoring, collaborating, evaluating cleaning practices
VIII. Cleaning, Disinfection, Sterilization 10 items Identify methods, assist with reviews, audits
DOMAIN I: IDENTIFICATION OF INFECTIOUS DISEASE PROCESSES (Questions 1-35)
This domain focuses on interpreting diagnostic reports, specimen collection, correlating clinical signs/symptoms,
differentiating colonization vs. infection, antimicrobial stewardship, and assessing risk factors.
1. A wound culture grows Staphylococcus aureus in a patient with no signs of infection (no
fever, no redness, no purulent drainage). This is best described as:
A. Infection
B. Colonization
C. Contamination
D. Pseudo-infection
Correct Answer: B. Colonization
Rationale: Colonization refers to the presence of microorganisms on a body surface without
causing tissue damage or an immune response. Infection requires clinical signs and symptoms.
Contamination refers to microorganisms present in a specimen from an external source.
2. A patient develops fever, chills, and hypotension 48 hours after a central line insertion.
Blood cultures are obtained. The most appropriate empiric antimicrobial therapy should be
initiated:
2
, A. After culture results are available
B. Immediately after blood cultures are drawn
C. After consulting infectious disease only
D. After 24 hours of observation
Correct Answer: B. Immediately after blood cultures are drawn
Rationale: Empiric antimicrobial therapy should be initiated promptly after obtaining
appropriate cultures. Delaying treatment in a patient with signs of sepsis can increase mortality.
Antimicrobials should be narrowed based on culture results.
3. Which of the following is the correct order of steps for collecting a wound culture?
A. Cleanse wound, collect specimen from wound bed, transport in appropriate media
B. Collect specimen first, then cleanse wound
C. Cleanse wound, collect from wound edges only
D. Collect pus from the surface only
Correct Answer: A. Cleanse wound, collect specimen from wound bed, transport in
appropriate media
Rationale: Proper wound culture technique involves cleansing the wound to remove surface
contaminants, then collecting a specimen from the wound bed (not surface pus or wound
edges) using sterile technique, and transporting in appropriate media.
4. A patient presents with fever, cough, and chest X-ray showing infiltrates. Sputum Gram
stain shows gram-positive cocci in pairs and chains. Which organism is most likely?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Rationale: S. pneumoniae is a gram-positive coccus that appears in pairs (diplococci) or chains.
It is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. S. aureus appears in clusters, H.
influenzae is a gram-negative coccobacillus, and P. aeruginosa is a gram-negative rod.
3
, 5. The prophylactic use of antimicrobials is defined as:
A. Treatment of an established infection
B. Administration before an infection develops to prevent it
C. Treatment based on clinical suspicion before culture results
D. Treatment of a non-infectious condition
Correct Answer: B. Administration before an infection develops to prevent it
Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobials are given to prevent infection before it occurs (e.g.,
surgical prophylaxis). Empiric therapy is initiated based on clinical suspicion before culture
results. Therapeutic use treats established infection.
6. A patient with a urinary catheter develops fever and cloudy urine. Urinalysis shows
>100,000 CFU/mL of a single organism with positive leukocyte esterase. This represents:
A. Asymptomatic bacteriuria
B. Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)
C. Contamination of the urine specimen
D. Colonization of the urinary tract
Correct Answer: B. Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)
Rationale: CAUTI is defined by the presence of clinical signs/symptoms (fever) and a positive
urine culture (>100,000 CFU/mL) in a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter. Asymptomatic
bacteriuria lacks symptoms. Contamination would show multiple organisms or low colony
counts.
7. A patient returns from international travel with fever, abdominal pain, and jaundice. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
Correct Answer: A. Hepatitis A
Rationale: Hepatitis A is transmitted via the fecal-oral route and is associated with international
travel, especially to developing countries. Hepatitis B, C, and D are transmitted through blood
and body fluids, not typically associated with travel-related outbreaks.
4
