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OVERVIEW:
NUR 170 Exam 2,3, & 4 covers fundamentals including health promotion,
primary/secondary prevention, holism, nutrition, albumin, aspiration, enteral
feeding, IV therapy, electrolytes, urinary elimination, wound healing, pressure
ulcers, immobility, body mechanics, sensory function, respiratory care, oxygen
delivery, cardiac monitoring, medication administration, dosage calculations,
diabetes teaching, pain management, culture, ethics, grief, defense mechanisms,
delegation, vital signs, documentation, safety and professional nursing
responsibilities for holistic adult care and clinical judgment preparation success.
Correct answer highlighted in bold Green + rationales.
1. The nurse is teaching an adult female client about health promotion. Which of the
following should the nurse recommend as a primary prevention intervention?
A) Performing a breast self-examination (BSE).
B) Having a yearly physical with labs.
C) Receiving family planning services.
D) Checking blood pressure every 3 months.
Rationale: Primary prevention prevents disease before it occurs. Family planning,
immunizations, health education are primary. BSE, physicals, BP checks are secondary
prevention (early detection).
2. The nurse is caring for a client who has joint pain. The nurse incorporates the
nutritional status, sleep patterns, energy level, and sense of well-being into the plan
of care. Which of the following concepts is the nurse practicing?
A) Homeostasis
B) Individuality
C) Health promotion
D) Holism
Rationale: Holism considers the whole person - physical, emotional, social, spiritual,
nutritional, sleep, energy levels, not just disease. Looks at interrelated parts.
,3. The community health nurse is preparing to provide education to an adolescent
client regarding health promotion. Which of the following health promotion topics is
most appropriate for this client?
A) Dental checkups
B) Preventive health screenings
C) Weight control
D) Peer group influences
Rationale: Adolescents are heavily influenced by peer groups; addressing peer pressure, risk
behaviors, sexuality, substance use, and peer influences is most developmentally appropriate.
4. The nurse is caring for a client who has a low serum albumin level. Which
statement by the nurse indicates a correct understanding of albumin levels?
A) The client is experiencing a rapid breakdown of protein.
B) This indicates a low level of iron circulating in the blood.
C) The results indicate prolonged malnutrition.
D) This indicates that the client has experienced blood loss.
Rationale: Albumin half-life 21 days, reflects prolonged protein status and nutritional status
over weeks, visceral protein. Low albumin indicates chronic malnutrition, liver disease, not
acute blood loss or iron level.
5. The nurse is preparing to discharge an elderly client who is at risk for aspiration.
Which of the following should the nurse recommend?
A) Prepare liquids at prescribed consistency
B) Tilt the head back when swallowing
C) Drink warm water instead of cold
D) Use extra pillow when eating in bed
Rationale: Aspiration precautions: thicken liquids to prescribed consistency, upright 90
degrees, chin tuck, small bites, swallow twice, avoid straws. Tilting back increases aspiration
risk.
6. The nurse is administering an intermittent gastrointestinal (GT) feeding to a client.
Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to take?
A) Aspiration and disposal of any residual prior to feeding delivery.
B) Setting up feeding bag system to deliver the feeding at a fast rate
C) Raising and lowering the syringe to adjust the flow rate of the feeding.
D) Placing the head of the bed at 15 degrees with the client on their left side
, Rationale: Intermittent bolus feeding by syringe: raise syringe to increase flow, lower to slow.
Check residual, do not dispose but return or hold per policy. HOB 30-45 degrees to prevent
aspiration, not 15 degrees.
7. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving prescribed medication
intravenously (IV). Upon assessment, the nurse notes the IV site is swollen and cool to
the touch. Which of the following is most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A) Slow the rate of the infusion and provide a warm blanket
B) Stop the infusion and start supportive treatment
C) Call the primary health care provider (PHCP) and get order for a new medication
D) Monitor the client closely since they need the medication
Rationale: Swollen, cool, pale site indicates infiltration. Stop infusion immediately, remove IV,
elevate extremity, apply warm or cold compress per policy, restart at new site.
8. The nurse is caring for a client who was admitted to the acute care unit with a
decreased phosphorus level. Which of the following should the nurse recommend?
A) Enforce strict isolation protocols
B) Strain all urine
C) Encourage consumption of a high-calorie carbohydrate diet
D) Encourage consumption of milk and yogurt
Rationale: Hypophosphatemia: encourage phosphorus-rich foods - dairy, meat, fish, nuts,
whole grains. Milk and yogurt are high in phosphorus.
9. The nurse is caring for a client who is 5-days postoperative and has been on bed
rest. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to decrease
the client's possibility of developing hypercalcemia?
A) Assist the client to turn, cough, and deep breath every 2 hours
B) Measure vital signs every 4 hours
C) Assist the client to ambulate around the room at least 3 times daily.
D) Irrigate the client's nasogastric (NG) tube every 2 hours.
Rationale: Immobility causes bone resorption releasing calcium. Early ambulation and
weight-bearing prevent hypercalcemia, promote calcium return to bones.
10. The nurse is caring for a client who has had diarrhea for 48 hours and has
developed fatigue, restlessness, and disorientation. Which of the following laboratory
results should the nurse correlate to these signs and symptoms?
A) Calcium
B) Sodium