NR 602 Final Exam Prep Chamberlain Primary Care Family
- Actual Questions | 2026/2027 Edition | 200 Verified
Questions - 170 Questions with Answers
NR 602 Primary Care of the Family Final Exam 2026-170 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED
A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document is meticulously curated for nursing students enrolled
in NR 602 Primary Care of the Family at Chamberlain University. It contains 200 actual exam
questions and verified answers, reflecting the most current evidence-based practice guidelines for
2026-2027. The content is organized to mirror the course curriculum, ensuring thorough coverage of
all major topics from health promotion to complex disease management across the lifespan. This
resource is essential for achieving a top score on the final exam.
Key Features:
Health Promotion and Disease Prevention: Screening, immunizations, and counseling across the lifespan
Common Acute Conditions in Primary Care: Respiratory, gastrointestinal, and dermatologic presentations
Management of Chronic Conditions: Hypertension, diabetes, asthma, and COPD
Women's Health: Contraception, pregnancy, menopause, and gynecologic concerns
Men's Health: Prostate, erectile dysfunction, and testicular disorders
Pediatric Primary Care: Well-child visits, developmental milestones, and common pediatric illnesses
Geriatric Primary Care: Polypharmacy, falls, cognitive decline, and functional assessment
Mental Health in Primary Care: Depression, anxiety, and substance use disorders
Dermatologic Disorders: Acne, eczema, psoriasis, and skin infections
Cardiovascular Disorders: Coronary artery disease, heart failure, and arrhythmias
Endocrine Disorders: Thyroid dysfunction, adrenal disorders, and metabolic syndrome
Infectious Diseases: Common infections, antibiotic stewardship, and management
Musculoskeletal and Rheumatologic Conditions: Osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout
Neurological Disorders: Headaches, seizures, and peripheral neuropathy
Health Policy and Ethical Issues in Primary Care: Legal considerations, patient advocacy, and cultural
competence
Evidence-Based Practice and Clinical Guidelines: Application of research to practice
Pharmacology in Primary Care: Prescribing principles, drug interactions, and adverse effects
Patient Education and Communication: Health literacy, motivational interviewing, and shared decision-making
Updates for 2026:
- Incorporate 2026 updates to the American Diabetes Association (ADA) Standards of Medical Care
- Align with the latest USPSTF screening recommendations for 2026-2027
- Include updated guidelines for hypertension management from ACC/AHA
- Reflect current CDC immunization schedules for children and adults
- Integrate new evidence-based practice for chronic disease management and preventive care
Abstract:
The NR 602 Final Exam Prep document provides an exhaustive review of primary care family nursing,
encompassing health promotion, acute and chronic disease management, and specialty populations. With 200
actual exam questions, this resource offers a realistic simulation of the Chamberlain final exam, complete with
rationales and evidence-based explanations. The content is systematically organized to cover all course modules,
Page 1
,from foundational concepts to complex clinical scenarios. This study guide is indispensable for nursing students
seeking to consolidate their knowledge and excel in the final examination. It emphasizes critical thinking and
application of the latest clinical guidelines, ensuring readiness for both the exam and future clinical practice.
Keywords:
NR 602, Primary Care, Family Nursing, Exam Prep, Chamberlain University, Actual Questions, 2026-2027,
Graded A+
Answer Format:
Each question is followed by the correct answer and a detailed rationale explaining the underlying
pathophysiology, clinical reasoning, and evidence-based guideline. Incorrect options are analyzed to clarify
common misconceptions and reinforce key concepts. This format enhances understanding and retention, preparing
students for the NCLEX-style questions on the exam.
Compliance Checklist:
All answers verified against current clinical practice guidelines
Questions reflect the NR 602 course objectives and blueprint
Updated for the 2026-2027 academic year
Includes rationales for both correct and incorrect answers
Organized by content area for targeted study
Suitable for self-assessment and exam simulation
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Health Promotion and Disease 1-20 Screening, Immunizations, Counseling, Risk 10%
Prevention Assessment
Common Acute Conditions 21-50 Respiratory, GI, Dermatologic, Infectious 15%
Chronic Disease Management 51-80 Hypertension, Diabetes, Asthma, COPD 15%
Women's Health 81-100 Contraception, Pregnancy, Menopause, 10%
Gynecologic
Men's Health 101-110 Prostate, Erectile Dysfunction, Testicular 5%
Pediatric Primary Care 111-130 Well-child, Developmental Milestones, 10%
Common Illnesses
Geriatric Primary Care 131-145 Polypharmacy, Falls, Cognitive Decline, 7.5%
Functional Assessment
Mental Health 146-155 Depression, Anxiety, Substance Use 5%
Dermatologic Disorders 156-165 Acne, Eczema, Psoriasis, Skin Infections 5%
Cardiovascular Disorders 166-175 CAD, Heart Failure, Arrhythmias 5%
Endocrine Disorders 176-185 Thyroid, Adrenal, Metabolic Syndrome 5%
Musculoskeletal and 186-195 Osteoarthritis, RA, Gout 5%
Rheumatologic
Neurological Disorders 196-200 Headaches, Seizures, Peripheral Neuropathy 2.5%
Page 2
,Q1. A patient with type 2 diabetes and chronic kidney disease (eGFR 38 mL/min/1.73
m²) has persistent albuminuria despite maximal ACE inhibitor therapy. Which
additional agent has demonstrated a renal benefit in this population and should be
considered?
A. SGLT2 inhibitor, such as empagliflozin
B. DPP-4 inhibitor, such as sitagliptin
C. GLP-1 receptor agonist, such as exenatide
D. Thiazolidinedione, such as pioglitazone
Correct Answer: A. SGLT2 inhibitor, such as empagliflozin
Rationale: SGLT2 inhibitors (e.g., empagliflozin) have robust evidence for slowing CKD
progression and reducing albuminuria in diabetic and non-diabetic kidney disease, and
they are recommended in guidelines for patients with eGFR >25. DPP-4 inhibitors are
renally cleared and may require dose adjustment, but they do not confer renal protection.
GLP-1 receptor agonists have cardiovascular benefits but less direct renal benefit, and
exenatide is not preferred in renal impairment. Thiazolidinediones can cause fluid
retention and are not recommended in advanced CKD.
Why Wrong:
B - DPP-4 inhibitors do not have proven renoprotective effects and require dose
adjustment in CKD.
C - GLP-1 receptor agonists have some renal benefits but are not first-line for
renoprotection, and exenatide is contraindicated in severe renal impairment.
D - Thiazolidinediones are associated with fluid retention and are not recommended in
advanced CKD.
Reference: KDIGO 2022 Clinical Practice Guideline for Diabetes Management in CKD
Q2. A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal pattern on the
trunk. The rash appeared 72 hours ago. Which intervention is most appropriate to
reduce the risk of postherpetic neuralgia?
A. Initiate oral acyclovir within 72 hours of rash onset
B. Prescribe gabapentin immediately for neuropathic pain
C. Apply topical lidocaine patches to the affected area
D. Administer the herpes zoster vaccine now
Correct Answer: A. Initiate oral acyclovir within 72 hours of rash onset
Rationale: Antiviral therapy (acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir) initiated within 72
hours of rash onset reduces the severity and duration of acute pain and decreases the risk
of postherpetic neuralgia. Gabapentin and lidocaine treat pain but do not alter the course
of the infection. The zoster vaccine is contraindicated during acute infection and is for
prevention.
Why Wrong:
B - Gabapentin is adjunctive for pain but does not reduce the risk of PHN if started
Page 3
, after the rash appears.
C - Topical lidocaine provides symptomatic relief but does not affect the progression
to PHN.
D - The zoster vaccine is not administered during active infection and does not treat
the current episode.
Reference: Dworkin, R.H., et al. (2007). Recommendations for the management of herpes
zoster. Clinical Infectious Diseases
Q3. A patient with major depressive disorder has been on fluoxetine 40 mg daily for 8
weeks with minimal response. The provider considers switching to another agent.
Which strategy is most appropriate?
A. Cross-taper fluoxetine to phenelzine while monitoring for serotonin syndrome
B. Switch directly to sertraline at a therapeutic dose after a 14-day washout
C. Add bupropion to fluoxetine to augment the antidepressant effect
D. Discontinue fluoxetine and start tranylcypromine after a 5-day washout
Correct Answer: C. Add bupropion to fluoxetine to augment the antidepressant effect
Rationale: Augmentation with bupropion is a well-established strategy for partial or
non-response to SSRIs, and it does not require a washout. Switching to another SSRI like
sertraline may be considered, but a washout is not needed when switching between SSRIs,
though careful cross-taper is needed. MAOIs (phenelzine, tranylcypromine) require a
14-day washout from SSRIs, and fluoxetine requires at least 5 weeks due to its long
half-life.
Why Wrong:
A - Phenelzine cannot be used concurrently with fluoxetine due to the risk of
serotonin syndrome and requires a long washout.
B - Direct switch to sertraline without a washout is possible but not the best next step
compared to augmentation.
D - Tranylcypromine requires a 14-day washout after stopping an SSRI, not 5 days.
Reference: American Psychiatric Association. (2010). Practice Guideline for the
Treatment of Patients With Major Depressive Disorder
Q4. A 50-year-old patient has a blood pressure of 152/96 mmHg confirmed on
repeated measurements. They have no diabetes or CKD. What is the recommended
initial treatment per JNC 8/ACC/AHA guidelines?
A. Lifestyle modification alone for 6 months before initiating medication
B. Initiate a thiazide diuretic, ACE inhibitor, ARB, or CCB with lifestyle modification
C. Start a beta-blocker and a thiazide diuretic as first-line therapy
D. Refer for renal artery duplex ultrasound before starting medication
Correct Answer: B. Initiate a thiazide diuretic, ACE inhibitor, ARB, or CCB with
Page 4
- Actual Questions | 2026/2027 Edition | 200 Verified
Questions - 170 Questions with Answers
NR 602 Primary Care of the Family Final Exam 2026-170 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED
A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document is meticulously curated for nursing students enrolled
in NR 602 Primary Care of the Family at Chamberlain University. It contains 200 actual exam
questions and verified answers, reflecting the most current evidence-based practice guidelines for
2026-2027. The content is organized to mirror the course curriculum, ensuring thorough coverage of
all major topics from health promotion to complex disease management across the lifespan. This
resource is essential for achieving a top score on the final exam.
Key Features:
Health Promotion and Disease Prevention: Screening, immunizations, and counseling across the lifespan
Common Acute Conditions in Primary Care: Respiratory, gastrointestinal, and dermatologic presentations
Management of Chronic Conditions: Hypertension, diabetes, asthma, and COPD
Women's Health: Contraception, pregnancy, menopause, and gynecologic concerns
Men's Health: Prostate, erectile dysfunction, and testicular disorders
Pediatric Primary Care: Well-child visits, developmental milestones, and common pediatric illnesses
Geriatric Primary Care: Polypharmacy, falls, cognitive decline, and functional assessment
Mental Health in Primary Care: Depression, anxiety, and substance use disorders
Dermatologic Disorders: Acne, eczema, psoriasis, and skin infections
Cardiovascular Disorders: Coronary artery disease, heart failure, and arrhythmias
Endocrine Disorders: Thyroid dysfunction, adrenal disorders, and metabolic syndrome
Infectious Diseases: Common infections, antibiotic stewardship, and management
Musculoskeletal and Rheumatologic Conditions: Osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout
Neurological Disorders: Headaches, seizures, and peripheral neuropathy
Health Policy and Ethical Issues in Primary Care: Legal considerations, patient advocacy, and cultural
competence
Evidence-Based Practice and Clinical Guidelines: Application of research to practice
Pharmacology in Primary Care: Prescribing principles, drug interactions, and adverse effects
Patient Education and Communication: Health literacy, motivational interviewing, and shared decision-making
Updates for 2026:
- Incorporate 2026 updates to the American Diabetes Association (ADA) Standards of Medical Care
- Align with the latest USPSTF screening recommendations for 2026-2027
- Include updated guidelines for hypertension management from ACC/AHA
- Reflect current CDC immunization schedules for children and adults
- Integrate new evidence-based practice for chronic disease management and preventive care
Abstract:
The NR 602 Final Exam Prep document provides an exhaustive review of primary care family nursing,
encompassing health promotion, acute and chronic disease management, and specialty populations. With 200
actual exam questions, this resource offers a realistic simulation of the Chamberlain final exam, complete with
rationales and evidence-based explanations. The content is systematically organized to cover all course modules,
Page 1
,from foundational concepts to complex clinical scenarios. This study guide is indispensable for nursing students
seeking to consolidate their knowledge and excel in the final examination. It emphasizes critical thinking and
application of the latest clinical guidelines, ensuring readiness for both the exam and future clinical practice.
Keywords:
NR 602, Primary Care, Family Nursing, Exam Prep, Chamberlain University, Actual Questions, 2026-2027,
Graded A+
Answer Format:
Each question is followed by the correct answer and a detailed rationale explaining the underlying
pathophysiology, clinical reasoning, and evidence-based guideline. Incorrect options are analyzed to clarify
common misconceptions and reinforce key concepts. This format enhances understanding and retention, preparing
students for the NCLEX-style questions on the exam.
Compliance Checklist:
All answers verified against current clinical practice guidelines
Questions reflect the NR 602 course objectives and blueprint
Updated for the 2026-2027 academic year
Includes rationales for both correct and incorrect answers
Organized by content area for targeted study
Suitable for self-assessment and exam simulation
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Health Promotion and Disease 1-20 Screening, Immunizations, Counseling, Risk 10%
Prevention Assessment
Common Acute Conditions 21-50 Respiratory, GI, Dermatologic, Infectious 15%
Chronic Disease Management 51-80 Hypertension, Diabetes, Asthma, COPD 15%
Women's Health 81-100 Contraception, Pregnancy, Menopause, 10%
Gynecologic
Men's Health 101-110 Prostate, Erectile Dysfunction, Testicular 5%
Pediatric Primary Care 111-130 Well-child, Developmental Milestones, 10%
Common Illnesses
Geriatric Primary Care 131-145 Polypharmacy, Falls, Cognitive Decline, 7.5%
Functional Assessment
Mental Health 146-155 Depression, Anxiety, Substance Use 5%
Dermatologic Disorders 156-165 Acne, Eczema, Psoriasis, Skin Infections 5%
Cardiovascular Disorders 166-175 CAD, Heart Failure, Arrhythmias 5%
Endocrine Disorders 176-185 Thyroid, Adrenal, Metabolic Syndrome 5%
Musculoskeletal and 186-195 Osteoarthritis, RA, Gout 5%
Rheumatologic
Neurological Disorders 196-200 Headaches, Seizures, Peripheral Neuropathy 2.5%
Page 2
,Q1. A patient with type 2 diabetes and chronic kidney disease (eGFR 38 mL/min/1.73
m²) has persistent albuminuria despite maximal ACE inhibitor therapy. Which
additional agent has demonstrated a renal benefit in this population and should be
considered?
A. SGLT2 inhibitor, such as empagliflozin
B. DPP-4 inhibitor, such as sitagliptin
C. GLP-1 receptor agonist, such as exenatide
D. Thiazolidinedione, such as pioglitazone
Correct Answer: A. SGLT2 inhibitor, such as empagliflozin
Rationale: SGLT2 inhibitors (e.g., empagliflozin) have robust evidence for slowing CKD
progression and reducing albuminuria in diabetic and non-diabetic kidney disease, and
they are recommended in guidelines for patients with eGFR >25. DPP-4 inhibitors are
renally cleared and may require dose adjustment, but they do not confer renal protection.
GLP-1 receptor agonists have cardiovascular benefits but less direct renal benefit, and
exenatide is not preferred in renal impairment. Thiazolidinediones can cause fluid
retention and are not recommended in advanced CKD.
Why Wrong:
B - DPP-4 inhibitors do not have proven renoprotective effects and require dose
adjustment in CKD.
C - GLP-1 receptor agonists have some renal benefits but are not first-line for
renoprotection, and exenatide is contraindicated in severe renal impairment.
D - Thiazolidinediones are associated with fluid retention and are not recommended in
advanced CKD.
Reference: KDIGO 2022 Clinical Practice Guideline for Diabetes Management in CKD
Q2. A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal pattern on the
trunk. The rash appeared 72 hours ago. Which intervention is most appropriate to
reduce the risk of postherpetic neuralgia?
A. Initiate oral acyclovir within 72 hours of rash onset
B. Prescribe gabapentin immediately for neuropathic pain
C. Apply topical lidocaine patches to the affected area
D. Administer the herpes zoster vaccine now
Correct Answer: A. Initiate oral acyclovir within 72 hours of rash onset
Rationale: Antiviral therapy (acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir) initiated within 72
hours of rash onset reduces the severity and duration of acute pain and decreases the risk
of postherpetic neuralgia. Gabapentin and lidocaine treat pain but do not alter the course
of the infection. The zoster vaccine is contraindicated during acute infection and is for
prevention.
Why Wrong:
B - Gabapentin is adjunctive for pain but does not reduce the risk of PHN if started
Page 3
, after the rash appears.
C - Topical lidocaine provides symptomatic relief but does not affect the progression
to PHN.
D - The zoster vaccine is not administered during active infection and does not treat
the current episode.
Reference: Dworkin, R.H., et al. (2007). Recommendations for the management of herpes
zoster. Clinical Infectious Diseases
Q3. A patient with major depressive disorder has been on fluoxetine 40 mg daily for 8
weeks with minimal response. The provider considers switching to another agent.
Which strategy is most appropriate?
A. Cross-taper fluoxetine to phenelzine while monitoring for serotonin syndrome
B. Switch directly to sertraline at a therapeutic dose after a 14-day washout
C. Add bupropion to fluoxetine to augment the antidepressant effect
D. Discontinue fluoxetine and start tranylcypromine after a 5-day washout
Correct Answer: C. Add bupropion to fluoxetine to augment the antidepressant effect
Rationale: Augmentation with bupropion is a well-established strategy for partial or
non-response to SSRIs, and it does not require a washout. Switching to another SSRI like
sertraline may be considered, but a washout is not needed when switching between SSRIs,
though careful cross-taper is needed. MAOIs (phenelzine, tranylcypromine) require a
14-day washout from SSRIs, and fluoxetine requires at least 5 weeks due to its long
half-life.
Why Wrong:
A - Phenelzine cannot be used concurrently with fluoxetine due to the risk of
serotonin syndrome and requires a long washout.
B - Direct switch to sertraline without a washout is possible but not the best next step
compared to augmentation.
D - Tranylcypromine requires a 14-day washout after stopping an SSRI, not 5 days.
Reference: American Psychiatric Association. (2010). Practice Guideline for the
Treatment of Patients With Major Depressive Disorder
Q4. A 50-year-old patient has a blood pressure of 152/96 mmHg confirmed on
repeated measurements. They have no diabetes or CKD. What is the recommended
initial treatment per JNC 8/ACC/AHA guidelines?
A. Lifestyle modification alone for 6 months before initiating medication
B. Initiate a thiazide diuretic, ACE inhibitor, ARB, or CCB with lifestyle modification
C. Start a beta-blocker and a thiazide diuretic as first-line therapy
D. Refer for renal artery duplex ultrasound before starting medication
Correct Answer: B. Initiate a thiazide diuretic, ACE inhibitor, ARB, or CCB with
Page 4
