Galen College NSG 3280 Exam 2 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | Pathophysiology
Q&A | Pathophysiology
1. A patient's chronic hypertension has resulted in thickening of the left
ventricular wall without an increase in the number of cells. Which term best
describes this cellular adaptation?
A) Hyperplasia
B) Metaplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Dysplasia
Correct Answer: Hypertrophy
Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size that results in an
enlargement of the organ without cell division. This adaptation occurs when
cells are subjected to increased workload, such as the heart working against
high vascular resistance in hypertension. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell
number, metaplasia is a change in cell type, and dysplasia is abnormal cell
growth.
2. A patient with a history of GERD undergoes an esophageal biopsy. The
pathology report indicates the presence of columnar epithelium in the distal
esophagus, replacing the normal squamous epithelium. This change is
classified as:
A) Hypertrophy
B) Metaplasia
C) Dysplasia
D) Atrophy
Correct Answer: Metaplasia
,Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type
by another. In Barrett's esophagus, chronic acid reflux causes the normal
stratified squamous epithelium of the esophagus to be replaced by columnar
epithelium, which is more resistant to acid damage.
3. A patient's skin biopsy reveals abnormal changes in cell size, shape, and
organization, but the changes have not yet invaded the basement
membrane. This finding is consistent with:
A) Hyperplasia
B) Metaplasia
C) Anaplasia
D) Dysplasia
Correct Answer: Dysplasia
Rationale: Dysplasia is characterized by abnormal changes in cell size,
shape, and organization. It is considered a pre-cancerous condition and can
be reversible if the causative agent is removed. Anaplasia is a hallmark of
malignant cancer cells, indicating a loss of differentiation.
4. A nurse is educating a patient on the difference between apoptosis and
necrosis. Which statement by the patient indicates correct understanding?
A) "Apoptosis is unplanned cell death due to injury."
B) "Necrosis is a normal, orderly process of cell death."
C) "Apoptosis is a programmed, orderly process of cell death."
D) "Necrosis is a necessary part of cellular turnover."
Correct Answer: "Apoptosis is a programmed, orderly process of cell death."
,Rationale: Apoptosis is a normal, genetically programmed process of cell
death that eliminates unwanted or damaged cells without causing
inflammation. Necrosis is unplanned, pathologic cell death caused by injury
or disease, which typically triggers an inflammatory response.
5. A patient has sustained a crush injury to the lower leg, leading to
ischemia. The nurse expects the cellular injury in this area to result in which
type of necrosis?
A) Liquefactive necrosis
B) Caseous necrosis
C) Coagulative necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
Correct Answer: Coagulative necrosis
Rationale: Coagulative necrosis is the most common type of necrosis and
occurs primarily from ischemia or hypoxia. The cell structure is preserved for
several days, and the affected tissue becomes firm. Liquefactive necrosis is
common in the brain, caseous necrosis in tuberculosis, and fat necrosis in
adipose tissue.
6. A nurse is assessing a patient who is experiencing an acute inflammatory
response. Which sequence of events correctly describes the vascular
response in inflammation?
A) Vasodilation followed by increased capillary permeability
B) Vasoconstriction followed by decreased capillary permeability
C) Increased capillary permeability followed by vasodilation
D) Vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation
Correct Answer: Vasodilation followed by increased capillary permeability
, Rationale: The vascular response to injury begins with transient
vasoconstriction, followed by vasodilation and increased capillary
permeability. This allows fluid, proteins, and white blood cells to leave the
circulation and enter the injured tissue, leading to the classic signs of
inflammation (redness, heat, swelling, and pain).
7. A patient's laboratory results show a significant elevation in C-reactive
protein (CRP). The nurse understands that this finding is indicative of:
A) An acute inflammatory response
B) A chronic inflammatory response
C) A viral infection only
D) A primary immunodeficiency
Correct Answer: An acute inflammatory response
Rationale: C-reactive protein (CRP) is an acute-phase protein produced by
the liver in response to inflammation. Its levels rise rapidly during the acute
phase of inflammation, making it a sensitive marker for detecting and
monitoring inflammatory processes.
8. A nurse is caring for a patient with a chronic wound that is not healing.
The nurse suspects the wound may be infected. Which laboratory value
would the nurse anticipate to be elevated?
A) Serum albumin
B) Serum potassium
C) White blood cell count (WBC)
D) Serum sodium
Correct Answer: White blood cell count (WBC)
Q&A | Pathophysiology
1. A patient's chronic hypertension has resulted in thickening of the left
ventricular wall without an increase in the number of cells. Which term best
describes this cellular adaptation?
A) Hyperplasia
B) Metaplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Dysplasia
Correct Answer: Hypertrophy
Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size that results in an
enlargement of the organ without cell division. This adaptation occurs when
cells are subjected to increased workload, such as the heart working against
high vascular resistance in hypertension. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell
number, metaplasia is a change in cell type, and dysplasia is abnormal cell
growth.
2. A patient with a history of GERD undergoes an esophageal biopsy. The
pathology report indicates the presence of columnar epithelium in the distal
esophagus, replacing the normal squamous epithelium. This change is
classified as:
A) Hypertrophy
B) Metaplasia
C) Dysplasia
D) Atrophy
Correct Answer: Metaplasia
,Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type
by another. In Barrett's esophagus, chronic acid reflux causes the normal
stratified squamous epithelium of the esophagus to be replaced by columnar
epithelium, which is more resistant to acid damage.
3. A patient's skin biopsy reveals abnormal changes in cell size, shape, and
organization, but the changes have not yet invaded the basement
membrane. This finding is consistent with:
A) Hyperplasia
B) Metaplasia
C) Anaplasia
D) Dysplasia
Correct Answer: Dysplasia
Rationale: Dysplasia is characterized by abnormal changes in cell size,
shape, and organization. It is considered a pre-cancerous condition and can
be reversible if the causative agent is removed. Anaplasia is a hallmark of
malignant cancer cells, indicating a loss of differentiation.
4. A nurse is educating a patient on the difference between apoptosis and
necrosis. Which statement by the patient indicates correct understanding?
A) "Apoptosis is unplanned cell death due to injury."
B) "Necrosis is a normal, orderly process of cell death."
C) "Apoptosis is a programmed, orderly process of cell death."
D) "Necrosis is a necessary part of cellular turnover."
Correct Answer: "Apoptosis is a programmed, orderly process of cell death."
,Rationale: Apoptosis is a normal, genetically programmed process of cell
death that eliminates unwanted or damaged cells without causing
inflammation. Necrosis is unplanned, pathologic cell death caused by injury
or disease, which typically triggers an inflammatory response.
5. A patient has sustained a crush injury to the lower leg, leading to
ischemia. The nurse expects the cellular injury in this area to result in which
type of necrosis?
A) Liquefactive necrosis
B) Caseous necrosis
C) Coagulative necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
Correct Answer: Coagulative necrosis
Rationale: Coagulative necrosis is the most common type of necrosis and
occurs primarily from ischemia or hypoxia. The cell structure is preserved for
several days, and the affected tissue becomes firm. Liquefactive necrosis is
common in the brain, caseous necrosis in tuberculosis, and fat necrosis in
adipose tissue.
6. A nurse is assessing a patient who is experiencing an acute inflammatory
response. Which sequence of events correctly describes the vascular
response in inflammation?
A) Vasodilation followed by increased capillary permeability
B) Vasoconstriction followed by decreased capillary permeability
C) Increased capillary permeability followed by vasodilation
D) Vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation
Correct Answer: Vasodilation followed by increased capillary permeability
, Rationale: The vascular response to injury begins with transient
vasoconstriction, followed by vasodilation and increased capillary
permeability. This allows fluid, proteins, and white blood cells to leave the
circulation and enter the injured tissue, leading to the classic signs of
inflammation (redness, heat, swelling, and pain).
7. A patient's laboratory results show a significant elevation in C-reactive
protein (CRP). The nurse understands that this finding is indicative of:
A) An acute inflammatory response
B) A chronic inflammatory response
C) A viral infection only
D) A primary immunodeficiency
Correct Answer: An acute inflammatory response
Rationale: C-reactive protein (CRP) is an acute-phase protein produced by
the liver in response to inflammation. Its levels rise rapidly during the acute
phase of inflammation, making it a sensitive marker for detecting and
monitoring inflammatory processes.
8. A nurse is caring for a patient with a chronic wound that is not healing.
The nurse suspects the wound may be infected. Which laboratory value
would the nurse anticipate to be elevated?
A) Serum albumin
B) Serum potassium
C) White blood cell count (WBC)
D) Serum sodium
Correct Answer: White blood cell count (WBC)
