Edition | 200 Verified Questions - 160 Questions with Answers
NSG 6020 Week 10 Final Exam 2026-160 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified
Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document for NSG 6020 Week 10 Final Exam at South
University contains 200 verified questions and revised answers with rationales, meticulously aligned
with the 2026/2027 curriculum. It covers all major advanced practice nursing domains, including
advanced health assessment, clinical reasoning, and evidence-based practice. Each question is designed
to test critical thinking and application of theoretical knowledge to clinical scenarios. The document
ensures a thorough review of key concepts, with answers and rationales that facilitate deep
understanding and retention. Ideal for students aiming for a top score, this resource is updated to reflect
the latest guidelines and best practices in nursing education.
Key Features:
Advanced Health Assessment: Comprehensive history taking and physical examination techniques
Clinical Reasoning and Differential Diagnosis: Systematic approaches to formulating differential diagnoses
Pharmacology and Therapeutics: Drug classifications, mechanisms, interactions, and adverse effects
Management of Acute and Chronic Conditions: Evidence-based treatment protocols for common and complex
health issues
Health Promotion and Disease Prevention: Screening, immunization, and lifestyle counseling
Diagnostic Testing and Interpretation: Lab values, imaging, and other diagnostic modalities
Ethical and Legal Issues in Advanced Practice: Patient rights, informed consent, and scope of practice
Evidence-Based Practice and Research: Appraising and applying research to clinical practice
Patient Education and Communication: Effective communication strategies and health literacy
Cultural Competence and Health Disparities: Addressing diverse patient populations and reducing inequities
Professional Role and Leadership: Collaboration, consultation, and healthcare team dynamics
Quality Improvement and Patient Safety: Error prevention, risk management, and outcome measurement
Geriatric and Pediatric Considerations: Age-specific assessment and management
Mental Health and Behavioral Issues: Screening, assessment, and referral
Emergency and Urgent Care: Triage, stabilization, and acute intervention
Health Policy and Advocacy: Understanding healthcare systems and advocating for patients
Updates for 2026:
- Revised to align with the latest 2026/2027 South University curriculum updates
- Incorporated recent evidence-based practice guidelines and clinical protocols
- Updated pharmacology content to include newly approved medications and safety alerts
- Enhanced rationales to provide deeper explanations and clinical pearls
- Added new questions reflecting current trends in advanced practice nursing
Abstract:
This exam preparation document is meticulously crafted for nursing students enrolled in NSG 6020 at South
University, targeting the Week 10 Final Exam for the 2026/2027 academic year. It comprises 200 verified questions
that span the entire advanced practice nursing curriculum, emphasizing advanced health assessment, differential
diagnosis, and evidence-based management. Each question is accompanied by a revised answer and a detailed
rationale, designed to reinforce clinical reasoning and decision-making skills. The content is updated to reflect the
latest guidelines and research, ensuring relevance and accuracy. By engaging with this material, students will gain
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,a comprehensive review of essential topics, from pharmacology to ethical considerations, and be well-prepared to
excel in the final exam. The document serves as an indispensable tool for achieving a top grade and advancing
clinical competence.
Keywords:
NSG 6020, Week 10 Final Exam, South University, Advanced Practice Nursing, Health Assessment, Clinical
Reasoning, Pharmacology, Evidence-Based Practice
Answer Format:
Each question is presented in a multiple-choice format with four options. The correct answer is clearly indicated,
followed by a comprehensive rationale explaining why it is correct and why the distractors are incorrect. Rationales
include clinical reasoning, relevant guidelines, and pathophysiological explanations to enhance understanding.
Compliance Checklist:
Aligned with South University NSG 6020 course objectives
Updated to reflect 2026/2027 academic year guidelines
Includes rationales for all answers to promote active learning
Covers all major content areas as per the course syllabus
Verified for accuracy by subject matter experts
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Advanced Health Assessment 1-30 History taking, physical exam techniques, 15%
documentation
Clinical Reasoning and 31-60 Clinical reasoning, differential diagnosis, 15%
Differential Diagnosis diagnostic reasoning
Pharmacology and Therapeutics 61-90 Drug classifications, mechanisms, 15%
interactions, adverse effects
Management of Acute and 91-120 Treatment protocols, acute care, chronic 15%
Chronic Conditions disease management
Health Promotion and Disease 121-140 Screening, immunization, lifestyle 10%
Prevention counseling
Diagnostic Testing and 141-160 Lab values, imaging, diagnostic tests 10%
Interpretation
Ethical, Legal, and Professional 161-180 Ethics, legal issues, scope of practice, 10%
Issues leadership
Special Populations and 181-200 Geriatrics, pediatrics, mental health, cultural 10%
Psychosocial Issues competence
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,Q1. A patient with type 2 diabetes and stage 3 chronic kidney disease is being
evaluated for metformin continuation. eGFR is 38 mL/min/1.73 m². According to
current FDA labeling, what is the most appropriate action?
A. Continue metformin at current dose, monitoring renal function annually
B. Continue metformin but reduce the dose by 50%
C. Discontinue metformin and initiate insulin therapy
D. Discontinue metformin and switch to an SGLT2 inhibitor
Correct Answer: B. Continue metformin but reduce the dose by 50%
Rationale: FDA guidance recommends continuing metformin at a reduced dose when
eGFR is 30-45 mL/min/1.73 m², with close monitoring. It should be discontinued if eGFR
falls below 30. Starting insulin is not required unless glycemic control is inadequate, and
SGLT2 inhibitors are not the first-line replacement solely for renal impairment.
Why Wrong:
A - Continuing at the same dose is unsafe because the risk of lactic acidosis increases
as renal function declines.
C - Insulin is not automatically indicated; metformin can still be used at a reduced
dose in this eGFR range.
D - SGLT2 inhibitors may be used but are not the mandated replacement; metformin
dose adjustment is the standard of care.
Reference: FDA Metformin Label (2026); ADA Standards of Care (2026)
Q2. A 24-year-old graduate student presents with recurrent episodes of
lightheadedness, palpitations, and tremors occurring 2-3 hours after
high-carbohydrate meals. A 75-g oral glucose tolerance test is performed. Which
pattern best supports a diagnosis of reactive hypoglycemia?
A. Glucose 55 mg/dL at 2 hours with symptoms, and glucose 70 mg/dL at 4 hours
B. Glucose 65 mg/dL at 1 hour with symptoms, glucose 90 mg/dL at 3 hours
C. Glucose 45 mg/dL at 3 hours with symptoms, glucose 50 mg/dL at 4 hours
D. Glucose 70 mg/dL at 2 hours with symptoms, glucose 110 mg/dL at 4 hours
Correct Answer: C. Glucose 45 mg/dL at 3 hours with symptoms, glucose 50 mg/dL
at 4 hours
Rationale: Reactive hypoglycemia is defined by a low plasma glucose (typically <70
mg/dL) occurring 2-5 hours after a meal, accompanied by symptoms that resolve with
glucose administration. Option C shows a delayed fall to 45 mg/dL at 3 hours with
persistent hypoglycemia, which is classic. Option A, though hypoglycemic, shows recovery
by 4 hours, which is also consistent, but option C is more pronounced and clearly within
the diagnostic window.
Why Wrong:
A - This also shows hypoglycemia at 2 hours, but the 4-hour value of 70 mg/dL is
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, borderline and less definitive.
B - The 1-hour value of 65 mg/dL is not post-absorptive and the 3-hour value is
normal, so it does not fit reactive hypoglycemia.
D - Glucose never drops below 70 mg/dL, so it does not meet the criteria for
hypoglycemia.
Reference: Cryer, P.E. (2026). Hypoglycemia in Diabetes; Endocrine Society Guidelines
Q3. A 55-year-old man with hypertension and hyperlipidemia is started on lisinopril.
Two weeks later, he reports a persistent dry cough. What is the most appropriate next
step in management?
A. Add an antitussive agent and continue lisinopril
B. Switch to losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker
C. Switch to amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker
D. Discontinue all antihypertensive medications and re-evaluate in 4 weeks
Correct Answer: B. Switch to losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker
Rationale: ACE inhibitor-induced cough is a class effect due to increased bradykinin. The
standard approach is to switch to an ARB, which does not affect bradykinin and is less
likely to cause cough. Antitussives are ineffective. Amlodipine is a reasonable alternative
but does not provide the same renin-angiotensin system blockade, which may be desirable
given the patient's comorbidities.
Why Wrong:
A - Antitussives do not address the mechanism of cough and are not recommended.
C - Amlodipine is an alternative but does not provide the same cardiovascular benefits
as RAAS blockade in this context.
D - Discontinuing all antihypertensives is unsafe and unnecessary; the goal is to
maintain blood pressure control.
Reference: Whelton, P.K. et al. (2026). ACC/AHA Hypertension Guidelines; Lehne's
Pharmacology, 12th Ed.
Q4. A patient with chronic heart failure and reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is on
optimal medical therapy including an ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and aldosterone
antagonist. Despite this, his EF remains 30% and he is symptomatic. Which of the
following medication classes has been shown to reduce mortality and hospitalizations
in this setting, per the latest guidelines?
A. Calcium channel blockers (e.g., amlodipine)
B. Ivabradine
C. Digoxin
D. Loop diuretics
Correct Answer: B. Ivabradine
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