Page 1 of 211
ALL ARCHER STUDY SET QUESTIONS EXAM
2026 QUESTIONS LATEST VERSION QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS
all archer study set questions
atropine is
gasoline
While working in a pediatric cardiac intensive care unit, you are caring for a child
diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot. Upon entering the room in the morning for your first
assessment you find the child crying, cyanotic, and tachycardic. You recognize this as a
hypercyanotic tet spell. Place the following actions in order of priority:
-Administer 100% oxygen
-Place the infant in the knees to chest position
-Administer an IV fluid bolus
-Administer morphine sulfate
-Document the event
4393
-Place the infant in the knees to chest position
-Place the infant in the knees to chest position
-Administer morphine sulfate
-Administer an IV fluid bolus
-Document the event
Correct answer: The priority in a hypercyanotic tet spell is to place the child in a knee to
chest position. Tet spells occur when the infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely
cyanotic due to infundibular spasm usually associated with feeding or crying. When this
spasm occurs, there is decreased flow from the right ventricle due to the obstruction, resulting
in severe hypoxia. Putting the child in a knee-chest position increases the intrathoracic
pressure and increases blood flow to the lungs, therefore increasing oxygenation to body
tissues. The next priority action is to administer 100% oxygen to assist in meeting the
, Page 2 of 211
child’s oxygenation requirements and relieving the hypoxia quickly. The following priority
action is to administer morphine sulfate. This is the drug of choice for tet spells because it
helps to calm the child down while simultaneously reducing the infundibular spasm that
causes right ventricular outflow obstruction and, therefore, the hypercyanotic tet spell. The
next priority nursing action is to administer an IV fluid bolus. This increases preload and
consequently, cardiac output, helping to increase perfusion and oxygenation to the tissues.
Lastly, the nurse should document the event, actions taken, and the patient’s response.
What is the term that is used to describe a human's innate biological clock relating to
daytime and nighttime wakefulness and activity?
A. REM sleep
B. Circadian rhythm
C. Diurnal activity
D. Nocturnal activity
3063
B. Circadian rhythm
Circadian rhythm is defined as our 24-hour biological clock that is primarily one that
functions best with daytime wakefulness/activity and nighttime sleep. When clients are in
synchrony with their biological clock, humans function optimally because many of our
essential rational physiological and mental functions like blood pressure, body temperature,
and levels of alertness/performance are at their optimal levels.
The nurse is caring for a patient that has just been diagnosed with primary
hyperparathyroidism. With knowledge regarding this disease, the nurse should expect
which laboratory value to be present?
A. Serum potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L
B. RBC of 5.2 x million/uL
C. Serum calcium level of 11.2 mg/dL
D. Serum sodium level of 120 mmol/L
2881
C. Serum calcium level of 11.2 mg/dL
A calcium level of 11.2 mg/dL is high and indicates hypercalcemia. Normal serum calcium
level is between 8.6 and 10.3 mg/dL. In primary hyperparathyroidism, serum calcium level is
, Page 3 of 211
usually elevated. Often, primary hyperparathyroidism results in the removal of calcium from
the bones and thereby, results in increased serum calcium levels. Removing calcium from
bones results in demineralization and consequently, osteoporosis.
A. K of 4.1 is normal
B. hyperparathyroidism has nothing to do with RBCs
D. hyponatremia is not a manifestation of primary hyperparathyroidism. Hyponatremia is
seen with hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, diuretic use, and syndrome of inappropriate
anti-diuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion.
The nurse is assessing assigned clients. Which client has a risk for urinary
retention? Select all that apply.
A. A 78-year-old man diagnosed with an enlarged prostate.
B. An 83-year-old woman on bed rest.
C. A 75-year-old woman with vaginal prolapse.
D. An 89-year-old man with dementia.
E. A 73-year-old woman on antihistamines to treat allergies.
F. A 90-year-old man with difficulty walking to the restroom.
8%
of peers got it right
A. A 78-year-old man diagnosed with an enlarged prostate.
C. A 75-year-old woman with vaginal prolapse.
E. A 73-year-old woman on antihistamines to treat allergies
Choices B, D, and F are incorrect. All these answer options (immobility, dementia, walking
difficulty) may place the clients at risk for urinary incontinence, not urinary retention.
Retention can occur because of mechanical obstruction of the bladder outlet (enlarged
prostate in a man or vaginal prolapse in a woman). Antihistaminic medications (such as
diphenhydramine) tend to have anticholinergic side effects. Urinary retention can occur from
the use of drugs with anticholinergic side effects. The bladder muscle's (detrusor smooth
muscle) primary function is to "contract" and fully empty the bladder. Detrusor smooth
muscle has muscarinic (cholinergic) receptors that facilitate this contraction. Anticholinergic
agents impair this function and predispose to urinary retention. Excessive urinary retention
eventually results in "overflow" incontinence.
, Page 4 of 211
The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old client who was sent to the emergency department
from urgent care. Assessment reveals tripod positioning, blue lips, mottled skin,
inspiratory stridor, and excessive drooling. Vital signs are:
Temp: 39 C
HR: 188
RR: 46
O2: 82 %
What is the priority action for the nurse to take at this time?
A. Keep the child calm and call for emergency airway equipment
B. Obtain IV access
C. Assess the throat for a cherry red epiglottis
D. Place the child on a high flow nasal cannula at 100% FiO2
6120
A. Keep the child calm and call for emergency airway equipment
Choice A is correct. Based on the presenting symptoms, the nurse suspects that this child
has epiglottitis. Any child presenting with excessive drooling, distress, and stridor is highly
suspicious to have this medical emergency. In addition, this client is already showing signs of
circulatory compromise including circumoral cyanosis and mottling. The priority nursing
action in this emergency is keeping the child calm and calling for emergency airway
equipment. The child is at risk of losing their airway and the airway is always the priority.
Choice B is incorrect. It is inappropriate to attempt to obtain IV access on a child suspected
of epiglottitis before emergency airway equipment is available. The priority action at this
time is keeping the child calm and calling for emergency airway equipment.
Choice C is incorrect. It is inappropriate to assess the throat for a cherry red epiglottis at this
time. Although the presence of a cherry red epiglottis would confirm the diagnosis of
epiglottitis, this child is at risk of losing their airway. The priority action will be to protect the
airway before IV access is attempted.
Choice D is incorrect. Placing the child on a high-flow nasal cannula at 100% FiO2 is not
the priority at this time. This answer probably sounded right, because you see the O2 is 82%
and they have circumoral cyanosis. Oxygen sounds like the right answer but this intervention
addresses the "C" in the ABC's mnemonic - circulation but the priority is always the airway.
This child is at risk of losing their airway, so all interventions need to wait until there is
emergency airway equipment close by. If anything upsets the child, then their airway could
spasm and obstruct completely, making it impossible to intubate them. That is why keeping
ALL ARCHER STUDY SET QUESTIONS EXAM
2026 QUESTIONS LATEST VERSION QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS
all archer study set questions
atropine is
gasoline
While working in a pediatric cardiac intensive care unit, you are caring for a child
diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot. Upon entering the room in the morning for your first
assessment you find the child crying, cyanotic, and tachycardic. You recognize this as a
hypercyanotic tet spell. Place the following actions in order of priority:
-Administer 100% oxygen
-Place the infant in the knees to chest position
-Administer an IV fluid bolus
-Administer morphine sulfate
-Document the event
4393
-Place the infant in the knees to chest position
-Place the infant in the knees to chest position
-Administer morphine sulfate
-Administer an IV fluid bolus
-Document the event
Correct answer: The priority in a hypercyanotic tet spell is to place the child in a knee to
chest position. Tet spells occur when the infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely
cyanotic due to infundibular spasm usually associated with feeding or crying. When this
spasm occurs, there is decreased flow from the right ventricle due to the obstruction, resulting
in severe hypoxia. Putting the child in a knee-chest position increases the intrathoracic
pressure and increases blood flow to the lungs, therefore increasing oxygenation to body
tissues. The next priority action is to administer 100% oxygen to assist in meeting the
, Page 2 of 211
child’s oxygenation requirements and relieving the hypoxia quickly. The following priority
action is to administer morphine sulfate. This is the drug of choice for tet spells because it
helps to calm the child down while simultaneously reducing the infundibular spasm that
causes right ventricular outflow obstruction and, therefore, the hypercyanotic tet spell. The
next priority nursing action is to administer an IV fluid bolus. This increases preload and
consequently, cardiac output, helping to increase perfusion and oxygenation to the tissues.
Lastly, the nurse should document the event, actions taken, and the patient’s response.
What is the term that is used to describe a human's innate biological clock relating to
daytime and nighttime wakefulness and activity?
A. REM sleep
B. Circadian rhythm
C. Diurnal activity
D. Nocturnal activity
3063
B. Circadian rhythm
Circadian rhythm is defined as our 24-hour biological clock that is primarily one that
functions best with daytime wakefulness/activity and nighttime sleep. When clients are in
synchrony with their biological clock, humans function optimally because many of our
essential rational physiological and mental functions like blood pressure, body temperature,
and levels of alertness/performance are at their optimal levels.
The nurse is caring for a patient that has just been diagnosed with primary
hyperparathyroidism. With knowledge regarding this disease, the nurse should expect
which laboratory value to be present?
A. Serum potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L
B. RBC of 5.2 x million/uL
C. Serum calcium level of 11.2 mg/dL
D. Serum sodium level of 120 mmol/L
2881
C. Serum calcium level of 11.2 mg/dL
A calcium level of 11.2 mg/dL is high and indicates hypercalcemia. Normal serum calcium
level is between 8.6 and 10.3 mg/dL. In primary hyperparathyroidism, serum calcium level is
, Page 3 of 211
usually elevated. Often, primary hyperparathyroidism results in the removal of calcium from
the bones and thereby, results in increased serum calcium levels. Removing calcium from
bones results in demineralization and consequently, osteoporosis.
A. K of 4.1 is normal
B. hyperparathyroidism has nothing to do with RBCs
D. hyponatremia is not a manifestation of primary hyperparathyroidism. Hyponatremia is
seen with hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, diuretic use, and syndrome of inappropriate
anti-diuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion.
The nurse is assessing assigned clients. Which client has a risk for urinary
retention? Select all that apply.
A. A 78-year-old man diagnosed with an enlarged prostate.
B. An 83-year-old woman on bed rest.
C. A 75-year-old woman with vaginal prolapse.
D. An 89-year-old man with dementia.
E. A 73-year-old woman on antihistamines to treat allergies.
F. A 90-year-old man with difficulty walking to the restroom.
8%
of peers got it right
A. A 78-year-old man diagnosed with an enlarged prostate.
C. A 75-year-old woman with vaginal prolapse.
E. A 73-year-old woman on antihistamines to treat allergies
Choices B, D, and F are incorrect. All these answer options (immobility, dementia, walking
difficulty) may place the clients at risk for urinary incontinence, not urinary retention.
Retention can occur because of mechanical obstruction of the bladder outlet (enlarged
prostate in a man or vaginal prolapse in a woman). Antihistaminic medications (such as
diphenhydramine) tend to have anticholinergic side effects. Urinary retention can occur from
the use of drugs with anticholinergic side effects. The bladder muscle's (detrusor smooth
muscle) primary function is to "contract" and fully empty the bladder. Detrusor smooth
muscle has muscarinic (cholinergic) receptors that facilitate this contraction. Anticholinergic
agents impair this function and predispose to urinary retention. Excessive urinary retention
eventually results in "overflow" incontinence.
, Page 4 of 211
The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old client who was sent to the emergency department
from urgent care. Assessment reveals tripod positioning, blue lips, mottled skin,
inspiratory stridor, and excessive drooling. Vital signs are:
Temp: 39 C
HR: 188
RR: 46
O2: 82 %
What is the priority action for the nurse to take at this time?
A. Keep the child calm and call for emergency airway equipment
B. Obtain IV access
C. Assess the throat for a cherry red epiglottis
D. Place the child on a high flow nasal cannula at 100% FiO2
6120
A. Keep the child calm and call for emergency airway equipment
Choice A is correct. Based on the presenting symptoms, the nurse suspects that this child
has epiglottitis. Any child presenting with excessive drooling, distress, and stridor is highly
suspicious to have this medical emergency. In addition, this client is already showing signs of
circulatory compromise including circumoral cyanosis and mottling. The priority nursing
action in this emergency is keeping the child calm and calling for emergency airway
equipment. The child is at risk of losing their airway and the airway is always the priority.
Choice B is incorrect. It is inappropriate to attempt to obtain IV access on a child suspected
of epiglottitis before emergency airway equipment is available. The priority action at this
time is keeping the child calm and calling for emergency airway equipment.
Choice C is incorrect. It is inappropriate to assess the throat for a cherry red epiglottis at this
time. Although the presence of a cherry red epiglottis would confirm the diagnosis of
epiglottitis, this child is at risk of losing their airway. The priority action will be to protect the
airway before IV access is attempted.
Choice D is incorrect. Placing the child on a high-flow nasal cannula at 100% FiO2 is not
the priority at this time. This answer probably sounded right, because you see the O2 is 82%
and they have circumoral cyanosis. Oxygen sounds like the right answer but this intervention
addresses the "C" in the ABC's mnemonic - circulation but the priority is always the airway.
This child is at risk of losing their airway, so all interventions need to wait until there is
emergency airway equipment close by. If anything upsets the child, then their airway could
spasm and obstruct completely, making it impossible to intubate them. That is why keeping
