NSG 3850 Midterm Exam Pathophysiology for
Nurses II – Midterm Exam Complete Questions
And Correct Answers With Rationales | Already
Graded A+||Brand New Version!!.
1. A patient with chronic heart failure develops enlarged cardiac muscle fibers.
This cellular adaptation is best described as:
A) Metaplasia
B) Hyperplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Dysplasia
Answer: C
Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size in response to increased workload, commonly seen
in cardiac muscle cells due to chronic pressure overload from heart failure . Metaplasia is
replacement of one cell type with another; hyperplasia is increased cell number; dysplasia
is abnormal cellular growth.
2. The nurse is teaching a patient about cellular injury. Which finding indicates
that cellular injury has led to irreversible cell death?
A) Decreased ATP production
B) Cellular swelling
C) Nuclear pyknosis and karyorrhexis
D) Loss of microvilli
Answer: C
Nuclear pyknosis (shrinkage), karyorrhexis (fragmentation), and karyolysis (dissolution)
are hallmarks of irreversible cell death. Earlier changes like cellular swelling and ATP loss
are reversible if the insult is removed .
,3. A patient presents with redness, heat, swelling, and pain at a wound site. These
cardinal signs of acute inflammation are primarily caused by:
A) Vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
B) Vasoconstriction and decreased blood flow
C) Neutrophil apoptosis
D) Fibroblast proliferation
Answer: A
The cardinal signs of acute inflammation—rubor (redness), calor (heat), tumor (swelling),
and dolor (pain)—result from vasodilation (redness/heat) and increased capillary
permeability (swelling), with pain mediated by chemical mediators like bradykinin and
prostaglandins .
4. A patient is diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome (excess cortisol). Which
laboratory finding would the nurse expect?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Decreased sodium
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Increased lymphocytes
Answer: C
Cushing's syndrome causes hyperglycemia due to cortisol-induced gluconeogenesis and
insulin resistance. Cortisol also causes sodium retention (not decreased) and
immunosuppression .
5. Which statement about tumor suppressor genes is correct?
A) They promote cell division when mutated
B) They normally inhibit cell proliferation and promote apoptosis
C) They are identical to proto-oncogenes
D) They are only found in viruses
Answer: B
Tumor suppressor genes normally inhibit cell proliferation and promote apoptosis. When
mutated (loss of function), this allows unchecked cell division and cancer development .
Proto-oncogenes promote cell growth; when mutated they become oncogenes.
,6. A child with cystic fibrosis has recurrent lung infections. The genetic inheritance
pattern is:
A) X-linked dominant
B) Autosomal dominant
C) Autosomal recessive
D) Mitochondrial
Answer: C
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the CFTR gene on
chromosome 7. Two mutated alleles are required for the disease to manifest .
7. Which cell type predominates in early acute inflammation?
A) Neutrophils
B) Macrophages
C) Lymphocytes
D) Eosinophils
Answer: A
Neutrophils are the first responders in acute inflammation, arriving within 6–24 hours.
Macrophages appear later in the inflammatory response .
8. Chronic inflammation is characterized by:
A) Neutrophils and pus
B) Lymphocytes, macrophages, and fibrosis
C) Immediate resolution
D) Exudative fluid only
Answer: B
Chronic inflammation involves mononuclear cells (lymphocytes and macrophages), tissue
destruction, and attempted repair with fibrosis (scarring) .
, 9. Which chemical mediator causes fever during the inflammatory response?
A) Interleukin-1
B) Histamine
C) Leukotrienes
D) Bradykinin
Answer: A
Interleukin-1 (IL-1) and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α) act on the hypothalamus to
raise body temperature (fever) .
10. A patient with allergic rhinitis would have increased levels of which cell type?
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Monocytes
Answer: B
Eosinophils are the predominant cell type in allergic reactions and parasitic infections .
11. Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta to provide passive immunity to
the fetus?
A) IgG
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgE
Answer: A
IgG is the only antibody that crosses the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to
the fetus .
12. Type II hypersensitivity reactions involve:
A) Antibodies against cell surface antigens
Nurses II – Midterm Exam Complete Questions
And Correct Answers With Rationales | Already
Graded A+||Brand New Version!!.
1. A patient with chronic heart failure develops enlarged cardiac muscle fibers.
This cellular adaptation is best described as:
A) Metaplasia
B) Hyperplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Dysplasia
Answer: C
Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size in response to increased workload, commonly seen
in cardiac muscle cells due to chronic pressure overload from heart failure . Metaplasia is
replacement of one cell type with another; hyperplasia is increased cell number; dysplasia
is abnormal cellular growth.
2. The nurse is teaching a patient about cellular injury. Which finding indicates
that cellular injury has led to irreversible cell death?
A) Decreased ATP production
B) Cellular swelling
C) Nuclear pyknosis and karyorrhexis
D) Loss of microvilli
Answer: C
Nuclear pyknosis (shrinkage), karyorrhexis (fragmentation), and karyolysis (dissolution)
are hallmarks of irreversible cell death. Earlier changes like cellular swelling and ATP loss
are reversible if the insult is removed .
,3. A patient presents with redness, heat, swelling, and pain at a wound site. These
cardinal signs of acute inflammation are primarily caused by:
A) Vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
B) Vasoconstriction and decreased blood flow
C) Neutrophil apoptosis
D) Fibroblast proliferation
Answer: A
The cardinal signs of acute inflammation—rubor (redness), calor (heat), tumor (swelling),
and dolor (pain)—result from vasodilation (redness/heat) and increased capillary
permeability (swelling), with pain mediated by chemical mediators like bradykinin and
prostaglandins .
4. A patient is diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome (excess cortisol). Which
laboratory finding would the nurse expect?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Decreased sodium
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Increased lymphocytes
Answer: C
Cushing's syndrome causes hyperglycemia due to cortisol-induced gluconeogenesis and
insulin resistance. Cortisol also causes sodium retention (not decreased) and
immunosuppression .
5. Which statement about tumor suppressor genes is correct?
A) They promote cell division when mutated
B) They normally inhibit cell proliferation and promote apoptosis
C) They are identical to proto-oncogenes
D) They are only found in viruses
Answer: B
Tumor suppressor genes normally inhibit cell proliferation and promote apoptosis. When
mutated (loss of function), this allows unchecked cell division and cancer development .
Proto-oncogenes promote cell growth; when mutated they become oncogenes.
,6. A child with cystic fibrosis has recurrent lung infections. The genetic inheritance
pattern is:
A) X-linked dominant
B) Autosomal dominant
C) Autosomal recessive
D) Mitochondrial
Answer: C
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the CFTR gene on
chromosome 7. Two mutated alleles are required for the disease to manifest .
7. Which cell type predominates in early acute inflammation?
A) Neutrophils
B) Macrophages
C) Lymphocytes
D) Eosinophils
Answer: A
Neutrophils are the first responders in acute inflammation, arriving within 6–24 hours.
Macrophages appear later in the inflammatory response .
8. Chronic inflammation is characterized by:
A) Neutrophils and pus
B) Lymphocytes, macrophages, and fibrosis
C) Immediate resolution
D) Exudative fluid only
Answer: B
Chronic inflammation involves mononuclear cells (lymphocytes and macrophages), tissue
destruction, and attempted repair with fibrosis (scarring) .
, 9. Which chemical mediator causes fever during the inflammatory response?
A) Interleukin-1
B) Histamine
C) Leukotrienes
D) Bradykinin
Answer: A
Interleukin-1 (IL-1) and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α) act on the hypothalamus to
raise body temperature (fever) .
10. A patient with allergic rhinitis would have increased levels of which cell type?
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Monocytes
Answer: B
Eosinophils are the predominant cell type in allergic reactions and parasitic infections .
11. Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta to provide passive immunity to
the fetus?
A) IgG
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgE
Answer: A
IgG is the only antibody that crosses the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to
the fetus .
12. Type II hypersensitivity reactions involve:
A) Antibodies against cell surface antigens
