EMT Exam Prep Comprehensive
Questions (Frequently Tested) with
Verified Answers Graded A+
1. What is the first step in the primary assessment?
A. Airway management
B. Forming a general impression
C. Checking for a pulse
D. Assessing circulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary assessment begins with a general impression of the
patient upon arrival, noting level of consciousness, apparent life threats,
and overall appearance.
2. Which method is used to open the airway of an unresponsive
trauma patient?
A. Head-tilt/chin-lift
B. Jaw-thrust maneuver
C. Oropharyngeal airway insertion
D. Nasopharyngeal airway insertion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In trauma, the cervical spine must be protected; the jaw-thrust
opens the airway without extending the neck.
3. The correct rate of chest compressions for adult CPR is:
A. 60–80/min
B. 80–100/min
,C. 100–120/min
D. 120–140/min
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The American Heart Association recommends 100–120
compressions per minute for adult cardiac arrest.
4. In a single-rescuer infant CPR, the compression-to-ventilation ratio
is:
A. 15:2
B. 30:2
C. 30:1
D. 15:1
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For infant CPR by a single healthcare provider, the ratio is 30
compressions to 2 breaths. (For two rescuers, it is 15:2.)
5. An AED indicates “No shock advised.” You should:
A. Stop CPR and wait for ALS
B. Immediately resume chest compressions
C. Deliver two rescue breaths
D. Turn off the AED
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: If no shock is advised, CPR should be resumed immediately,
starting with compressions, to maintain perfusion.
6. The most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious
patient is:
A. A foreign body
B. The tongue
C. Laryngeal spasm
D. Vomit
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: The tongue is the most common airway obstruction in
unresponsive patients; a head-tilt/chin-lift usually corrects it.
7. Which patient has the highest priority for transport?
A. Unresponsive with snoring respirations
B. Deformity of the forearm with distal pulses
C. Bruised, swollen ankle
D. Alert patient with a minor laceration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Unresponsiveness with snoring indicates a compromised airway,
the top priority in triage and treatment.
8. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult?
A. 8–12 breaths/min
B. 12–20 breaths/min
C. 20–30 breaths/min
D. 30–40 breaths/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A healthy adult breathes 12–20 times per minute.
9. Which sign indicates inadequate breathing in an adult?
A. Respiratory rate of 18
B. Clear, equal breath sounds
C. Use of accessory muscles
D. Pink, warm skin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Use of accessory muscles (neck, intercostals) suggests
respiratory distress and inadequate ventilation.
10. What is the purpose of the oropharyngeal airway?
A. To suction secretions
B. To prevent the tongue from obstructing the pharynx
, C. To deliver high-flow oxygen
D. To enable intubation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The OPA lifts the tongue away from the posterior pharynx in
unresponsive patients without a gag reflex.
11. When is a nasopharyngeal airway contraindicated?
A. In a conscious patient
B. In a patient with a clenched jaw
C. In a patient with severe head or facial trauma
D. When cervical spine injury is suspected
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: NPA should not be used if there is suspicion of basilar skull
fracture or significant facial injuries.
12. What is the maximum time you should take to suction a patient’s
airway?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should not exceed 10–15 seconds to prevent
hypoxia; 10 seconds is the common limit in many protocols.
13. The correct placement of an AED pad for an adult is:
A. Both on the left chest
B. Upper right chest and lower left ribs
C. Upper left chest and lower right ribs
D. Both on the back
Correct Answer: B
Questions (Frequently Tested) with
Verified Answers Graded A+
1. What is the first step in the primary assessment?
A. Airway management
B. Forming a general impression
C. Checking for a pulse
D. Assessing circulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary assessment begins with a general impression of the
patient upon arrival, noting level of consciousness, apparent life threats,
and overall appearance.
2. Which method is used to open the airway of an unresponsive
trauma patient?
A. Head-tilt/chin-lift
B. Jaw-thrust maneuver
C. Oropharyngeal airway insertion
D. Nasopharyngeal airway insertion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In trauma, the cervical spine must be protected; the jaw-thrust
opens the airway without extending the neck.
3. The correct rate of chest compressions for adult CPR is:
A. 60–80/min
B. 80–100/min
,C. 100–120/min
D. 120–140/min
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The American Heart Association recommends 100–120
compressions per minute for adult cardiac arrest.
4. In a single-rescuer infant CPR, the compression-to-ventilation ratio
is:
A. 15:2
B. 30:2
C. 30:1
D. 15:1
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For infant CPR by a single healthcare provider, the ratio is 30
compressions to 2 breaths. (For two rescuers, it is 15:2.)
5. An AED indicates “No shock advised.” You should:
A. Stop CPR and wait for ALS
B. Immediately resume chest compressions
C. Deliver two rescue breaths
D. Turn off the AED
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: If no shock is advised, CPR should be resumed immediately,
starting with compressions, to maintain perfusion.
6. The most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious
patient is:
A. A foreign body
B. The tongue
C. Laryngeal spasm
D. Vomit
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: The tongue is the most common airway obstruction in
unresponsive patients; a head-tilt/chin-lift usually corrects it.
7. Which patient has the highest priority for transport?
A. Unresponsive with snoring respirations
B. Deformity of the forearm with distal pulses
C. Bruised, swollen ankle
D. Alert patient with a minor laceration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Unresponsiveness with snoring indicates a compromised airway,
the top priority in triage and treatment.
8. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult?
A. 8–12 breaths/min
B. 12–20 breaths/min
C. 20–30 breaths/min
D. 30–40 breaths/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A healthy adult breathes 12–20 times per minute.
9. Which sign indicates inadequate breathing in an adult?
A. Respiratory rate of 18
B. Clear, equal breath sounds
C. Use of accessory muscles
D. Pink, warm skin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Use of accessory muscles (neck, intercostals) suggests
respiratory distress and inadequate ventilation.
10. What is the purpose of the oropharyngeal airway?
A. To suction secretions
B. To prevent the tongue from obstructing the pharynx
, C. To deliver high-flow oxygen
D. To enable intubation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The OPA lifts the tongue away from the posterior pharynx in
unresponsive patients without a gag reflex.
11. When is a nasopharyngeal airway contraindicated?
A. In a conscious patient
B. In a patient with a clenched jaw
C. In a patient with severe head or facial trauma
D. When cervical spine injury is suspected
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: NPA should not be used if there is suspicion of basilar skull
fracture or significant facial injuries.
12. What is the maximum time you should take to suction a patient’s
airway?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should not exceed 10–15 seconds to prevent
hypoxia; 10 seconds is the common limit in many protocols.
13. The correct placement of an AED pad for an adult is:
A. Both on the left chest
B. Upper right chest and lower left ribs
C. Upper left chest and lower right ribs
D. Both on the back
Correct Answer: B
