BSN 437 Assignment 3 | Nutritional Assessment
2026 Update with complete solutions - Post
University.
1. The nurse recognizes which person is at greatest risk for undernutrition?
• A) 5-month-old infant
• B) 20-year-old college student
• C) 30-year-old hospital administrator
• D) 50-year-old woman
Answer: A
Rationale: Vulnerable groups for undernutrition include infants, children,
pregnant women, recent immigrants, persons with low incomes, hospitalized
individuals, and aging adults. Infants have the highest nutritional needs relative to
body size and are most dependent on caregivers for adequate nutrition .
2. What is the best definition of optimal nutritional status?
• A) Nutrients are in excess of daily body requirements
• B) Nutrients provide for minimum body needs only
• C) Nutrients provide for daily needs but not increased metabolic demands
• D) Nutrients provide for daily body requirements and support increased
metabolic demands
Answer: D
Rationale: Optimal nutritional status is achieved when sufficient nutrients are
consumed to support day-to-day body needs AND any increased metabolic
demands resulting from growth, pregnancy, or illness .
,3. What is the primary purpose of nutrition screening?
• A) To provide a comprehensive dietary evaluation
• B) To identify individuals who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
• C) To diagnose specific nutrient deficiencies
• D) To develop a complete nutrition care plan
Answer: B
Rationale: Nutrition screening is a brief, initial process using simple, quick-to-
obtain data (weight changes, dietary intake, disease severity) to identify patients
at risk for malnutrition. Those identified as "at risk" then undergo comprehensive
nutrition assessment .
4. Nutrition assessment differs from screening in that assessment:
• A) Uses fewer data points
• B) Is performed by any healthcare professional on admission
• C) Is a comprehensive evaluation of dietary intake, anthropometrics,
biochemical data, and clinical findings
• D) Is completed more quickly
Answer: C
Rationale: Nutrition assessment involves a comprehensive evaluation of dietary
intake, anthropometric measurements, biochemical data, clinical findings, and
environmental factors. Screening is a brief initial process, while assessment is
detailed and typically performed by registered dietitians or advanced
practitioners .
5. The components of a comprehensive nutritional assessment are often
referred to as:
, • A) ABCD
• B) ABCDE
• C) PQRST
• D) HEADSSS
Answer: B
Rationale: The ABCDE approach includes Anthropometrics, Biochemical data,
Clinical findings, Dietary assessment, and Environmental/socioeconomic factors .
6. Subjective data in nutritional assessment includes:
• A) Height and weight measurements
• B) Laboratory values
• C) Eating patterns and dietary habits
• D) Waist circumference
Answer: C
Rationale: Subjective data includes information gathered from the patient or
caregiver such as eating patterns, ongoing diseases, food allergies, exercise
routines, medications, and substance use .
7. Objective data in nutritional assessment includes:
• A) Food preferences and dislikes
• B) Reported appetite changes
• C) Anthropometric measurements and laboratory values
• D) Patient's description of symptoms
Answer: C
Rationale: Objective data includes measurable findings such as height, weight,
, BMI, waist circumference, laboratory values (vitamin D, iron, albumin levels), and
physical examination findings .
8. Which of the following is NOT a component of subjective data collection for
nutritional assessment?
• A) Dietary history and eating patterns
• B) Medication and supplement use
• C) Serum albumin level
• D) Substance use history
Answer: C
Rationale: Serum albumin is an objective laboratory (biochemical) measurement.
Subjective data includes dietary patterns, medications, substance use, appetite,
and stress levels reported by the patient .
9. The Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA) is primarily used to assess:
• A) Pediatric nutritional status
• B) Adolescent athletes
• C) Adults at risk for malnutrition
• D) Pregnant women
Answer: C
Rationale: The MNA is a validated screening tool for identifying malnutrition risk
in adults, particularly older adults. Scores of 12-14 indicate normal nutrition, 8-11
indicate risk for malnutrition, and 0-7 indicate malnourished status .
10. A patient with an MNA score of 9 would be classified as:
• A) Well-nourished
2026 Update with complete solutions - Post
University.
1. The nurse recognizes which person is at greatest risk for undernutrition?
• A) 5-month-old infant
• B) 20-year-old college student
• C) 30-year-old hospital administrator
• D) 50-year-old woman
Answer: A
Rationale: Vulnerable groups for undernutrition include infants, children,
pregnant women, recent immigrants, persons with low incomes, hospitalized
individuals, and aging adults. Infants have the highest nutritional needs relative to
body size and are most dependent on caregivers for adequate nutrition .
2. What is the best definition of optimal nutritional status?
• A) Nutrients are in excess of daily body requirements
• B) Nutrients provide for minimum body needs only
• C) Nutrients provide for daily needs but not increased metabolic demands
• D) Nutrients provide for daily body requirements and support increased
metabolic demands
Answer: D
Rationale: Optimal nutritional status is achieved when sufficient nutrients are
consumed to support day-to-day body needs AND any increased metabolic
demands resulting from growth, pregnancy, or illness .
,3. What is the primary purpose of nutrition screening?
• A) To provide a comprehensive dietary evaluation
• B) To identify individuals who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition
• C) To diagnose specific nutrient deficiencies
• D) To develop a complete nutrition care plan
Answer: B
Rationale: Nutrition screening is a brief, initial process using simple, quick-to-
obtain data (weight changes, dietary intake, disease severity) to identify patients
at risk for malnutrition. Those identified as "at risk" then undergo comprehensive
nutrition assessment .
4. Nutrition assessment differs from screening in that assessment:
• A) Uses fewer data points
• B) Is performed by any healthcare professional on admission
• C) Is a comprehensive evaluation of dietary intake, anthropometrics,
biochemical data, and clinical findings
• D) Is completed more quickly
Answer: C
Rationale: Nutrition assessment involves a comprehensive evaluation of dietary
intake, anthropometric measurements, biochemical data, clinical findings, and
environmental factors. Screening is a brief initial process, while assessment is
detailed and typically performed by registered dietitians or advanced
practitioners .
5. The components of a comprehensive nutritional assessment are often
referred to as:
, • A) ABCD
• B) ABCDE
• C) PQRST
• D) HEADSSS
Answer: B
Rationale: The ABCDE approach includes Anthropometrics, Biochemical data,
Clinical findings, Dietary assessment, and Environmental/socioeconomic factors .
6. Subjective data in nutritional assessment includes:
• A) Height and weight measurements
• B) Laboratory values
• C) Eating patterns and dietary habits
• D) Waist circumference
Answer: C
Rationale: Subjective data includes information gathered from the patient or
caregiver such as eating patterns, ongoing diseases, food allergies, exercise
routines, medications, and substance use .
7. Objective data in nutritional assessment includes:
• A) Food preferences and dislikes
• B) Reported appetite changes
• C) Anthropometric measurements and laboratory values
• D) Patient's description of symptoms
Answer: C
Rationale: Objective data includes measurable findings such as height, weight,
, BMI, waist circumference, laboratory values (vitamin D, iron, albumin levels), and
physical examination findings .
8. Which of the following is NOT a component of subjective data collection for
nutritional assessment?
• A) Dietary history and eating patterns
• B) Medication and supplement use
• C) Serum albumin level
• D) Substance use history
Answer: C
Rationale: Serum albumin is an objective laboratory (biochemical) measurement.
Subjective data includes dietary patterns, medications, substance use, appetite,
and stress levels reported by the patient .
9. The Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA) is primarily used to assess:
• A) Pediatric nutritional status
• B) Adolescent athletes
• C) Adults at risk for malnutrition
• D) Pregnant women
Answer: C
Rationale: The MNA is a validated screening tool for identifying malnutrition risk
in adults, particularly older adults. Scores of 12-14 indicate normal nutrition, 8-11
indicate risk for malnutrition, and 0-7 indicate malnourished status .
10. A patient with an MNA score of 9 would be classified as:
• A) Well-nourished
