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Exam Prep
,What is the concentration limit for CIII codeine? 1.8 g/100 mL
and
90 mg/dosage unit
(if anything more than these concentrations, it becomes a CII)
What is the FEDERAL concentration limit for CV opium? 100mg/100mL
What is the TEXAS concentration limit for CV opium? 50mg/100 mL
(half of federal)
What is the FEDERAL concentration limit for CIII opium? 500mg/100 mL
and
25mg/dosage unit
Any straight narcotic is a Schedule ___ regardless of strength? II
(so even if it has a flavor, cherry flavor syrup, it's still "pure"). If a narcotic is added to a
nonnarcotic, then that's when the concentrations apply)
What Class is required to store CII in a locked cabinet? Class C
Class C-S
Class C-ASC
Class F
Which scheduled classes require the "caution" label? What 11-IV
would be an exemption to this?
exemption: blinded clinical study
(NOT V)
A perpetual inventory is only required in TX for which class? -CII in a CLass C
-All controlled substances stored at a remote location under the remote pharmacy rules
-All controlled substance in Class C-ASC
-All controlled substance in Class F
, Which Class does a RPH not have to sign/initial when Class C-ASC
receiving a controlled substance? Who signs? Class F
-person receiving can sign for this
What records can NOT be kept at a central location? -Executed DEA order forms (Copy 3 of 222)
-Prescriptions
-Inventories
these must be kept at pharmacy at all times
What is the retail sales limit on pseudoephedrine? 3.6 g/day
9 g/30 days
What is the mail service and mobile retail vendors limitation on 7.5 g /30 days
pseudoephedrine?
Automatic refills per TSBP is allowed for which controlled IV and V
substances
NOT III and II
Who can prescribe CIII-CV, but the total qty (including refills) APRN
can NOT exceed a 90 day supply? PA
(limits on CII)
Drug wholesalers are regulated by who? TX Department of State Health Services
NOT TSBP
Preceptors must complete ___ hours of preceptor training 3 hours initially
(initially) every ___ years through ___ courses 2 years
ACPE
they must have at least 1 year of experience or 6 months of residency training