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ATI PN Exit Examination Practice Exam Preparation
With Complete Questions And Correct Answers With
Rationales Already Graded A+ Brand New Version!!
QUESTION 1
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving
oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. Which assessment
finding indicates that the oxygen therapy is effective?
A) Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
B) Oxygen saturation of 92%
C) Use of accessory muscles
D) PaCO2 of 52 mm Hg
Answer: B) Oxygen saturation of 92%
Rationale: The goal of oxygen therapy in COPD is to maintain oxygen
saturation above 90% without causing carbon dioxide retention. An
SpO2 of 92% indicates adequate oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 is
slightly elevated but not the best indicator of effectiveness. Use of
accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress. A PaCO2 of 52 mm Hg
indicates hypercapnia, which may be a concern with high-flow oxygen
but is not an indicator of effective therapy.
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QUESTION 2
A postoperative client reports sudden chest pain and shortness of
breath. The nurse notes tachycardia and hypotension. Which condition
should the nurse suspect first?
A) Atelectasis
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Pneumothorax
D) Wound infection
Answer: B) Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, and hypotension in
a postoperative client are classic signs of a pulmonary embolism, which
is a life-threatening complication. Atelectasis typically presents with
low-grade fever and crackles. Pneumothorax may cause sudden
dyspnea but is less common postoperatively without chest tube issues.
Wound infection would not present with acute respiratory symptoms
and hemodynamic instability.
QUESTION 3
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed metformin. Which
instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) Take the medication with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
B) Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia, especially at night.
C) Expect weight gain as a side effect.
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D) Discontinue the medication if blood glucose levels are normal.
Answer: A) Take the medication with meals to reduce gastrointestinal
upset.
Rationale: Metformin is an oral antidiabetic agent that commonly
causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and diarrhea. Taking
it with meals helps minimize these effects. Metformin does not typically
cause hypoglycemia unless combined with other agents. It is associated
with weight neutrality or slight weight loss, not weight gain. The
medication should not be discontinued without provider guidance, even
if glucose levels normalize.
QUESTION 4
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has been prescribed
furosemide. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Answer: B) Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and
chloride reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle, leading to
increased excretion of potassium. Hypokalemia is a significant adverse
effect that can precipitate cardiac arrhythmias. While sodium, calcium,
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and magnesium may also be affected, potassium is the most critical to
monitor due to its impact on cardiac function.
QUESTION 5
A client is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory finding is
most consistent with this diagnosis?
A) Elevated serum amylase and lipase
B) Decreased serum glucose
C) Elevated serum calcium
D) Decreased white blood cell count
Answer: A) Elevated serum amylase and lipase
Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, serum amylase and lipase levels are
typically elevated due to leakage of these enzymes from inflamed
pancreatic cells. Lipase is more specific to the pancreas. Serum glucose
may be elevated due to impaired insulin secretion. Serum calcium may
decrease due to saponification. White blood cell count is usually
elevated, not decreased, due to inflammation.
QUESTION 6
A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed fluoxetine. The
nurse should include which instruction regarding this medication?
A) Take the medication at bedtime to avoid daytime sedation.
B) Discontinue the medication if you experience headaches.
ATI PN Exit Examination Practice Exam Preparation
With Complete Questions And Correct Answers With
Rationales Already Graded A+ Brand New Version!!
QUESTION 1
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving
oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. Which assessment
finding indicates that the oxygen therapy is effective?
A) Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
B) Oxygen saturation of 92%
C) Use of accessory muscles
D) PaCO2 of 52 mm Hg
Answer: B) Oxygen saturation of 92%
Rationale: The goal of oxygen therapy in COPD is to maintain oxygen
saturation above 90% without causing carbon dioxide retention. An
SpO2 of 92% indicates adequate oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 is
slightly elevated but not the best indicator of effectiveness. Use of
accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress. A PaCO2 of 52 mm Hg
indicates hypercapnia, which may be a concern with high-flow oxygen
but is not an indicator of effective therapy.
,2|Page
QUESTION 2
A postoperative client reports sudden chest pain and shortness of
breath. The nurse notes tachycardia and hypotension. Which condition
should the nurse suspect first?
A) Atelectasis
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Pneumothorax
D) Wound infection
Answer: B) Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, and hypotension in
a postoperative client are classic signs of a pulmonary embolism, which
is a life-threatening complication. Atelectasis typically presents with
low-grade fever and crackles. Pneumothorax may cause sudden
dyspnea but is less common postoperatively without chest tube issues.
Wound infection would not present with acute respiratory symptoms
and hemodynamic instability.
QUESTION 3
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed metformin. Which
instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) Take the medication with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
B) Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia, especially at night.
C) Expect weight gain as a side effect.
,3|Page
D) Discontinue the medication if blood glucose levels are normal.
Answer: A) Take the medication with meals to reduce gastrointestinal
upset.
Rationale: Metformin is an oral antidiabetic agent that commonly
causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and diarrhea. Taking
it with meals helps minimize these effects. Metformin does not typically
cause hypoglycemia unless combined with other agents. It is associated
with weight neutrality or slight weight loss, not weight gain. The
medication should not be discontinued without provider guidance, even
if glucose levels normalize.
QUESTION 4
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has been prescribed
furosemide. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Answer: B) Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and
chloride reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle, leading to
increased excretion of potassium. Hypokalemia is a significant adverse
effect that can precipitate cardiac arrhythmias. While sodium, calcium,
, 4|Page
and magnesium may also be affected, potassium is the most critical to
monitor due to its impact on cardiac function.
QUESTION 5
A client is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory finding is
most consistent with this diagnosis?
A) Elevated serum amylase and lipase
B) Decreased serum glucose
C) Elevated serum calcium
D) Decreased white blood cell count
Answer: A) Elevated serum amylase and lipase
Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, serum amylase and lipase levels are
typically elevated due to leakage of these enzymes from inflamed
pancreatic cells. Lipase is more specific to the pancreas. Serum glucose
may be elevated due to impaired insulin secretion. Serum calcium may
decrease due to saponification. White blood cell count is usually
elevated, not decreased, due to inflammation.
QUESTION 6
A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed fluoxetine. The
nurse should include which instruction regarding this medication?
A) Take the medication at bedtime to avoid daytime sedation.
B) Discontinue the medication if you experience headaches.
