ATI Medical-Surgical | Neurological Conditions (Stroke, Seizures)
Practice Pack 2026/2027 |Questions |Answers |Rationales
1. A nurse is assessing a client for a suspected stroke. Which of the following is
the priority assessment finding using the FAST scale?
A. Bilateral leg weakness
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Severe headache
D. Facial drooping
Answer: D
Rationale: The FAST acronym stands for Facial drooping, Arm weakness, Speech
difficulties, and Time to call 911. Facial drooping is a hallmark sign of acute stroke.
2. A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected ischemic
stroke. Within what time frame from the onset of symptoms should tissue
plasminogen activator (tPA) be administered?
A. Within 24 hours
B. Within 12 hours
C. Within 3 to 4.5 hours
D. Within 8 hours
Answer: C
Rationale: For most patients, tPA (fibrinolytic therapy) must be administered within 3 to
4.5 hours of the onset of clinical stroke symptoms to be effective.
,3. A nurse is caring for a client who is having a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Ease the client to the floor and protect the head
B. Restrain the client’s limbs
C. Insert a padded tongue blade
D. Administer oral diazepam
Answer: A
Rationale: The priority during a seizure is safety. Easing the client to the floor and
protecting the head from injury prevents physical trauma. Nothing should be placed in the
mouth.
4. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which of the
following side effects should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Urinary retention
B. Hypertension
C. Gingival hyperplasia
D. Weight loss
Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia (overgrowth of gum tissue) is a common side effect of
long-term phenytoin use. Clients should be taught about meticulous oral hygiene.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who had a right-hemisphere stroke. Which of the
following manifestations should the nurse expect?
A. Aphasia
B. Impulsivity and poor judgment
C. Right-sided hemiplegia
D. Reading and writing difficulties
Answer: B
, Rationale: Right-hemisphere strokes often cause impulsivity, poor judgment, and lack of
awareness of deficits. Left-hemisphere strokes are typically associated with aphasia and
reading/writing issues.
6. Which of the following is the most important diagnostic test for a client
presenting with stroke-like symptoms to differentiate between ischemic and
hemorrhagic stroke?
A. Lumbar puncture
B. Non-contrast Computed Tomography (CT) scan
C. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
D. Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan
Answer: B
Rationale: A non-contrast CT scan of the head is the gold standard for initially identifying
whether a stroke is hemorrhagic or ischemic, which dictates the treatment plan.
7. A nurse is monitoring a client in status epilepticus. Which medication should
the nurse anticipate administering first to stop the seizure activity?
A. Lorazepam
B. Phenobarbital
C. Valproic acid
D. Gabapentin
Answer: A
Rationale: IV benzodiazepines, such as lorazepam or diazepam, are the first-line
medications used to stop active seizure activity in status epilepticus.
Practice Pack 2026/2027 |Questions |Answers |Rationales
1. A nurse is assessing a client for a suspected stroke. Which of the following is
the priority assessment finding using the FAST scale?
A. Bilateral leg weakness
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Severe headache
D. Facial drooping
Answer: D
Rationale: The FAST acronym stands for Facial drooping, Arm weakness, Speech
difficulties, and Time to call 911. Facial drooping is a hallmark sign of acute stroke.
2. A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected ischemic
stroke. Within what time frame from the onset of symptoms should tissue
plasminogen activator (tPA) be administered?
A. Within 24 hours
B. Within 12 hours
C. Within 3 to 4.5 hours
D. Within 8 hours
Answer: C
Rationale: For most patients, tPA (fibrinolytic therapy) must be administered within 3 to
4.5 hours of the onset of clinical stroke symptoms to be effective.
,3. A nurse is caring for a client who is having a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Ease the client to the floor and protect the head
B. Restrain the client’s limbs
C. Insert a padded tongue blade
D. Administer oral diazepam
Answer: A
Rationale: The priority during a seizure is safety. Easing the client to the floor and
protecting the head from injury prevents physical trauma. Nothing should be placed in the
mouth.
4. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which of the
following side effects should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Urinary retention
B. Hypertension
C. Gingival hyperplasia
D. Weight loss
Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia (overgrowth of gum tissue) is a common side effect of
long-term phenytoin use. Clients should be taught about meticulous oral hygiene.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who had a right-hemisphere stroke. Which of the
following manifestations should the nurse expect?
A. Aphasia
B. Impulsivity and poor judgment
C. Right-sided hemiplegia
D. Reading and writing difficulties
Answer: B
, Rationale: Right-hemisphere strokes often cause impulsivity, poor judgment, and lack of
awareness of deficits. Left-hemisphere strokes are typically associated with aphasia and
reading/writing issues.
6. Which of the following is the most important diagnostic test for a client
presenting with stroke-like symptoms to differentiate between ischemic and
hemorrhagic stroke?
A. Lumbar puncture
B. Non-contrast Computed Tomography (CT) scan
C. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
D. Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan
Answer: B
Rationale: A non-contrast CT scan of the head is the gold standard for initially identifying
whether a stroke is hemorrhagic or ischemic, which dictates the treatment plan.
7. A nurse is monitoring a client in status epilepticus. Which medication should
the nurse anticipate administering first to stop the seizure activity?
A. Lorazepam
B. Phenobarbital
C. Valproic acid
D. Gabapentin
Answer: A
Rationale: IV benzodiazepines, such as lorazepam or diazepam, are the first-line
medications used to stop active seizure activity in status epilepticus.
