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NR341/NR 341 Exam 4 V1 | Complex Adult Health Q&A with Rationale | Chamberlain University

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NR341/NR 341 Exam 4 V1 | Complex Adult Health Q&A with Rationale | Chamberlain University

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NR341/NR 341 Exam 4 V1 | Complex Adult Health
Q&A with Rationale | Chamberlain University
1. A patient arrives at the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction,

reporting crushing chest pain and a BP of 90/60 mmHg. Using the Emergency Severity Index

(ESI), which level should the nurse assign?

A. ESI 2


B. ESI 1


C. ESI 3


D. ESI 4


Correct Answer: A


Explanation: ESI level 2 is assigned to patients in high-risk situations where the condition

could deteriorate rapidly. This patient has unstable vital signs and symptoms suggestive of

a cardiac event, requiring immediate assessment. ESI 1 is reserved for patients requiring

immediate life-saving interventions such as intubation or CPR.


2. During the primary survey of a trauma patient, the nurse notes the absence of breath

sounds on the left side and tracheal deviation to the right. What is the priority intervention?

A. Obtain a portable chest X-ray


B. Administer high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather


C. Insert a large-bore orogastric tube

,D. Perform needle decompression


Correct Answer: D


Explanation: Tracheal deviation and absent breath sounds are hallmark signs of a tension

pneumothorax. This is a life-threatening condition that must be addressed during the

‘Breathing’ portion of the primary survey. Needle decompression followed by chest tube

insertion is the standard emergency treatment to relieve pleural pressure.


3. A patient is in the emergent phase of a 40% total body surface area (TBSA) burn. Which

laboratory value should the nurse anticipate?

A. Hypernatremia


B. Hypokalemia


C. Decreased hematocrit


D. Hyperkalemia


Correct Answer: D


Explanation: Hyperkalemia occurs in the emergent phase of burns due to massive cell

destruction and the release of potassium into the extracellular fluid. Hemoconcentration

also typically results in an increased hematocrit level due to fluid loss. Sodium levels often

decrease as sodium moves into the interstitial spaces with fluid shifts.


4. Which clinical manifestation is a hallmark sign of neurogenic shock following a spinal cord

injury at T3?

A. Tachycardia and hypertension

, B. Bradycardia and hyperthermia


C. Tachycardia and cool, clammy skin


D. Bradycardia and hypotension


Correct Answer: D


Explanation: Neurogenic shock is characterized by the loss of sympathetic tone, leading to

massive vasodilation and bradycardia. This differs from other forms of shock where the

body typically compensates with tachycardia. The hypotension results from the increased

vascular capacity and reduced venous return to the heart.


5. The nurse is caring for a patient in septic shock. Which hemodynamic parameter would the

nurse expect to find?

A. High Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR)


B. Decreased Cardiac Output


C. Low Central Venous Pressure (CVP)


D. High Pulmonary Artery Wedge Pressure (PAWP)


Correct Answer: C


Explanation: In septic shock, massive vasodilation and capillary leak lead to a relative and

absolute hypovolemia, resulting in a low CVP. Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR) is

typically low due to the vasodilation caused by inflammatory mediators. Early septic shock

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