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ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam: Latest 2026 Edition||questions and answers with rationales/graded A+/2026 update/100% correct /instant download

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ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor
Exam: Latest 2026 Edition||questions
and answers with rationales/graded
A+/2026 update/100% correct
/instant download
Total Questions: 82
Time Limit: 2 hours 30 minutes
Instruction: Select the best answer. Correct answers are highlighted in bold.
Rationales are provided after each question.


Section 1: Management of Care (Delegation, Assignment, Legal)
1. A registered nurse (RN) is delegating tasks to a licensed practical nurse
(LPN) and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task should the
RN delegate to the LPN?
• A. Bathing a client with stable vital signs
• B. Administering a tube feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube
• C. Ambulating a client who had a stroke 2 days ago
• D. Collecting a clean-catch urine specimen
Rationale: LPNs can perform stable, predictable tasks such as tube feedings.
Bathing and ambulating are UAP tasks. Collecting a clean-catch urine specimen is
also within UAP scope.
2. A charge nurse is making shift assignments on a medical-surgical unit.
Which client should be assigned to a float RN from the postpartum unit?
• A. Client with pneumonia requiring IV antibiotics
• B. Client with diabetic ketoacidosis on an insulin drip
• C. Client with a hip fracture who needs pain management

, • D. Client with a chest tube after lobectomy
Rationale: A float nurse should receive stable, predictable clients with routine
care. Insulin drips and chest tubes require specialized skills.
3. A nurse witnesses a colleague administering a medication to the wrong
client but no harm occurred. What is the nurse’s priority action?
• A. Ignore the event since no harm occurred
• B. Report the colleague to the nursing supervisor immediately
• C. Discuss the error with the colleague privately
• D. Complete an incident report and notify the provider
Rationale: Any medication error, even without harm, must be documented via an
incident report and the provider notified to assess the client.


Section 2: Safety and Infection Control
4. A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis is admitted. Which type of
precautions should the nurse implement?
• A. Contact precautions
• B. Droplet precautions
• C. Airborne precautions
• D. Standard precautions only
Rationale: TB requires airborne precautions (N95 mask, negative pressure room).
5. A client is on fall precautions. Which intervention is most effective?
• A. Bed alarm and hourly rounding
• B. Keeping all four side rails up
• C. Restraints at night only
• D. Low bed with no alarm
Rationale: Bed alarms and rounding reduce falls. Side rails up can cause
entrapment.

, 6. A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed enema to an adult client.
Which action is correct?
• A. Position client prone
• B. Lubricate the rectal tube and insert 3–4 inches
• C. Administer enema with client sitting on toilet
• D. Use cold solution to stimulate peristalsis
Rationale: Insert 3–4 inches (adult), left Sims’ position, warm solution.


Section 3: Health Promotion and Maintenance
7. A nurse is teaching a client about breast self-examination (BSE). When
should the client perform BSE?
• A. On the first day of menstrual flow
• B. 1 week after the first day of menstruation
• C. Mid-cycle
• D. Any day of the month
Rationale: Best time is 5–7 days after menses begins, when breasts are least
tender.
8. Which immunization should a 65-year-old client receive every 5 years?
• A. Influenza vaccine
• B. Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) – every 5 years if
high risk
• C. Tdap
• D. Shingles (RZV)
Rationale: PPSV23 is repeated every 5 years for certain conditions. Shingles is 2
doses. Flu is yearly.
9. A community health nurse is planning a smoking cessation program. Which
intervention is most effective?

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