ATI Comprehensive Predictor | Medical-Surgical Review Practice Exam
Q&A + Rationales | U.S. Nursing 2026/2027
1. A nurse is caring for a client with Heart Failure who is on a low-sodium diet.
Which food choice indicates the client understands the diet?
A. Canned soup
B. Frozen pepperoni pizza
C. Processed deli ham
D. Fresh turkey breast
Answer: D
Rationale: Fresh meats contain significantly less sodium than processed, canned, or frozen
convenience foods. Canned soups and deli meats are high in sodium preservatives.
2. Which ECG finding should a nurse expect in a client with a potassium level of
2.8 mEq/L?
A. Tall, peaked T waves
B. Widened QRS complex
C. Prominent U waves
D. ST-segment elevation
Answer: C
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) is associated with the presence of U waves, ST-
segment depression, and flat T waves. Peaked T waves and widened QRS are signs of
hyperkalemia.
,3. A nurse is assessing a client with Diabetes Insipidus. Which laboratory finding
is consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Urine specific gravity 1.002
B. Serum sodium 130 mEq/L
C. Urine specific gravity 1.035
D. Blood glucose 250 mg/dL
Answer: A
Rationale: Diabetes Insipidus results in a deficiency of ADH, leading to the excretion of
large amounts of very dilute urine. This results in a low urine specific gravity (usually 1.001
to 1.005).
4. A client is 24 hours post-appendectomy. Which finding is the priority to
report to the provider?
A. Incisional pain rated 6 out of 10
B. Absence of bowel sounds
C. Scant serosanguinous drainage on the dressing
D. A rigid, board-like abdomen
Answer: D
Rationale: A rigid, board-like abdomen is a classic sign of peritonitis, which is a life-
threatening complication. Absence of bowel sounds is common immediately post-op, and
pain is expected.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What is the most
critical action to prevent a hemolytic reaction?
A. Verifying the client’s identity with another nurse
B. Warming the blood to room temperature
C. Administering the blood over 5 hours
D. Using a 22-gauge needle for administration
Answer: A
, Rationale: Proper identification of the client and the blood product by two qualified
healthcare professionals is the most effective way to prevent a hemolytic transfusion
reaction.
6. A client with Rheumatoid Arthritis reports morning stiffness. Which
intervention should the nurse recommend?
A. Applying ice packs to joints for 20 minutes
B. Staying in bed as long as possible
C. Taking a warm shower upon awakening
D. Limiting range-of-motion exercises
Answer: C
Rationale: Heat helps relieve stiffness and pain in Rheumatoid Arthritis. A warm shower
helps ‘loosen’ the joints for the day. Cold is generally used for acute inflammation.
7. A nurse is monitoring a client with COPD receiving oxygen. Which flow rate is
typically recommended to avoid suppressing the respiratory drive?
A. 1 to 2 L/min
B. 5 to 6 L/min
C. 10 to 12 L/min
D. 15 L/min via non-rebreather
Answer: A
Rationale: Clients with COPD may rely on a ‘hypoxic drive’ to breathe. Providing high
concentrations of oxygen can decrease their drive to breathe, leading to CO2 retention.
Q&A + Rationales | U.S. Nursing 2026/2027
1. A nurse is caring for a client with Heart Failure who is on a low-sodium diet.
Which food choice indicates the client understands the diet?
A. Canned soup
B. Frozen pepperoni pizza
C. Processed deli ham
D. Fresh turkey breast
Answer: D
Rationale: Fresh meats contain significantly less sodium than processed, canned, or frozen
convenience foods. Canned soups and deli meats are high in sodium preservatives.
2. Which ECG finding should a nurse expect in a client with a potassium level of
2.8 mEq/L?
A. Tall, peaked T waves
B. Widened QRS complex
C. Prominent U waves
D. ST-segment elevation
Answer: C
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) is associated with the presence of U waves, ST-
segment depression, and flat T waves. Peaked T waves and widened QRS are signs of
hyperkalemia.
,3. A nurse is assessing a client with Diabetes Insipidus. Which laboratory finding
is consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Urine specific gravity 1.002
B. Serum sodium 130 mEq/L
C. Urine specific gravity 1.035
D. Blood glucose 250 mg/dL
Answer: A
Rationale: Diabetes Insipidus results in a deficiency of ADH, leading to the excretion of
large amounts of very dilute urine. This results in a low urine specific gravity (usually 1.001
to 1.005).
4. A client is 24 hours post-appendectomy. Which finding is the priority to
report to the provider?
A. Incisional pain rated 6 out of 10
B. Absence of bowel sounds
C. Scant serosanguinous drainage on the dressing
D. A rigid, board-like abdomen
Answer: D
Rationale: A rigid, board-like abdomen is a classic sign of peritonitis, which is a life-
threatening complication. Absence of bowel sounds is common immediately post-op, and
pain is expected.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What is the most
critical action to prevent a hemolytic reaction?
A. Verifying the client’s identity with another nurse
B. Warming the blood to room temperature
C. Administering the blood over 5 hours
D. Using a 22-gauge needle for administration
Answer: A
, Rationale: Proper identification of the client and the blood product by two qualified
healthcare professionals is the most effective way to prevent a hemolytic transfusion
reaction.
6. A client with Rheumatoid Arthritis reports morning stiffness. Which
intervention should the nurse recommend?
A. Applying ice packs to joints for 20 minutes
B. Staying in bed as long as possible
C. Taking a warm shower upon awakening
D. Limiting range-of-motion exercises
Answer: C
Rationale: Heat helps relieve stiffness and pain in Rheumatoid Arthritis. A warm shower
helps ‘loosen’ the joints for the day. Cold is generally used for acute inflammation.
7. A nurse is monitoring a client with COPD receiving oxygen. Which flow rate is
typically recommended to avoid suppressing the respiratory drive?
A. 1 to 2 L/min
B. 5 to 6 L/min
C. 10 to 12 L/min
D. 15 L/min via non-rebreather
Answer: A
Rationale: Clients with COPD may rely on a ‘hypoxic drive’ to breathe. Providing high
concentrations of oxygen can decrease their drive to breathe, leading to CO2 retention.
