INSTRUMENT ORAL UPDATED STUDY GUIDE
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS SET A+
✔✔Required tests/inspections of aircraft/equipment for IFR flight - ✔✔A - annual
V - VOR (30 days)
1 - 100 hour
A - altimeter (24 months)
T - transponder (24 months)
E - ELT (12 months)
Pitot/static system (within past 24 months)
✔✔Portable electronic devices on aircraft - ✔✔Not allowed, especially on commercial
operators/carriers or any aircraft operated IFR.
Exceptions: portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers,
or any other portable electronic devices that will not cause interference with NAV/COM.
✔✔Documents on board to be legal for IFR - ✔✔A - airworthiness certificate
R - registration certificate
R - radio station license (if international operations)
O - owner's manual or operating limitations
W - weight and balance data
✔✔How often is GPS waypoint information updated? - ✔✔Every 28 days, and
maintained by National Flight Data Center (NFDC)
✔✔When must pilot file an IFR flight plan? - ✔✔Prior to departure from within or prior to
entering controlled airspace: submit flight plan and receive clearance from ATC if
weather conditions are below VFR minimums. File 30 minutes prior to departure to
preclude delay in receiving departure clearance.
,✔✔When can you cancel IFR flight plan? - ✔✔Any time the flight is operated during
VFR conditions outside of Class A.
Be aware that other procedures may be applicable in area, such as designated TRSA,
Class C, or Class B.
✔✔What type of aircraft equipment determines your "special equipment" suffix when
filing IFR? - ✔✔a) radar beacon transponder
b) DME equipment
c) TACAN-only equipment
d) Area Navigation equipment (RNAV) - LORAN, INS
e) Advanced Area Navigation equipment - Global Positioning System (GPS)/Global
Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)
f) Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) authorization
✔✔Block 7 of flight plan - altitude specified? - ✔✔Initial altitude, make subsequent
requests to controller when in air
✔✔***Alternate Airport Requirements*** - ✔✔1-2-3 rule: Alternate required if from 1
hour before to 1 hour after forecast arrival at destination airport has 2000 foot ceilings
and less than 3 SM visibility. Alternate requirements:
a) If IAP is published for alternate, use those minimums, otherwise 600-2 (600 foot
ceilings, 2 SM visibility) for Precision Approach, and 800-2 for Nonprecision Approach
b) If no IAP has been published, ceiling and visibility minimums are those required for
descent from MEA, approach, and land under basic VFR
✔✔Define "ceiling" - ✔✔Height above Earth's surface (AGL) of lowest cloud layer
defined as obscured, broken, overcast, but not thin or partial.
✔✔What are preferred routes, and where can they be found? - ✔✔Routes in high traffic
areas that ATC designates to- and from- busy airports. Found in A/FD
✔✔What are Enroute Low-Altitude Charts? - ✔✔Provide aeronautical information for
navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000 feet MSL (under Class A). Revised every
56 days.
✔✔What are Enroute High-Altitude Charts? - ✔✔Provide information for navigation
above 18,000 feet MSL. Four-color chart series includes jet route structure; VHF
NAVAIDs with frequency, identification, channel, geographic coordinates; selected
airports; reporting points. Revised every 56 days.
✔✔What are "area charts"? - ✔✔Area charts show congested terminal areas such as
Dallas/FW or Atlanta at a large scale. They are included with subscriptions to any
conterminous US set Low (Full set, East or West sets). Revised every 56 days.
,✔✔Where can information on possible navigational aid limitations be found? -
✔✔NOTAMs as well as A/FDs will contain current limitations
✔✔What are the required reports for equipment malfunction under IFR-controller
airspace? - ✔✔a) Failure of VOR, TACAN, ADF, or low frequency navigation receiver
capability
b) GPS anomalies while using IFR-certified GPS/GNSS receivers
c) Complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability
d) Impairment of air/ground communication capability
e) Loss of any other equipment installed in the aircraft which may impair safety and/or
the ability to operate in IFR
✔✔How can IFR clearance be obtained? - ✔✔a) At airport with ATC tower in operation,
clearance may be received from ground control or specific clearance delivery frequency
b) At airports without a tower or FSS on field, or in outlying area:
- Clearance may be received over radio through remote communication outlet (RCO) or
over telephone
- Clearance delivery frequency is available that is usable at airports within specific area,
say Class B airspace
- If above not available, clearance can be received from ARTCC once airborne as long
as you stay in Class E airspace VFR
Ask the nearest FSS for appropriate means.
✔✔What does "cleared as filed" mean? - ✔✔ATC will issue abbreviated this statement
of IFR clearance based on route of flight as filed in the IFR flight plan
✔✔Which clearance items are given in an abbreviated IFR clearance? - ✔✔C -
Clearance Limit (destination airport or fix)
R - Route (initial heading)
A - Altitude (initial altitude)
F - frequency (departure)
T - transponder (squawk code)
Note: ATC procedures require controller to state the Departure Procedure (DP) within
Route info if applicable as well
✔✔What does "clearance void time" mean? - ✔✔When operating from non-towered
field, this is the time after which the IFR clearance is voided and pilot must report
intentions to ATC (within 30 minutes)
✔✔What does "hold for release" mean when included in IFR clearance? - ✔✔Delays
the aircraft's departure for traffic management reasons. May not depart under IFR
clearance until a release time or additional instructions are provided by ATC
✔✔Minimums necessary for IFR takeoff under 14 CFR Part 91? Under Parts 121, 125,
129, or 135? - ✔✔Part 91: None
, Other Parts (assuming Takeoff Minimums not prescribed for that airport under Part 97):
1 SM visibility for aircraft with 2 engines or less, 1/2 SM for aircraft with 3 or more
engines
✔✔What is "good operating practice" in determining takeoff minimums for IFR flight? -
✔✔Use the minima in the Instrument Approach Procedure for that airport. If none
available, use basic VFR minimums (1000 feet ceilings, 3 miles)
✔✔What are DPs and why are they necessary? - ✔✔Departure Procedures (DPs) are
preplanned IFR procedures that provide obstruction clearances from runway to enroute
airway. Provides obstacle clearance protection and, at busier airports, increases
efficiency by reducing communication and departure delays. Pilots under Part 91 are
strongly encouraged to file and fly a DP at night, during marginal VMC and IMC, when
one is available.
✔✔What are two types of DPs? - ✔✔a) Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) -
textually/graphically,
obstruction clearance via least burdensome route,
No need for ATC clearance unless alternate departure procedure (SID or radar vector)
has been specifically assigned by ATC.
b) Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) -
always graphically,
obstruction clearance and transition,
system enhancement and reduce pilot/controller workload,
ATC clearance must be received prior
✔✔What criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure? -
✔✔Based on:
pilot crossing departure end of runway > 35 ft above that elevation,
climbing to 400 ft above runway before making initial turn
maintaining minimum climb gradient of 200 ft/NM (unless required to level off by
crossing restriction). Gradient may vary based on obstacles.
✔✔Where are DPs located? - ✔✔Listed by airport in "IFR Take-Off Minimums and
Departure Procedures," Section C of the Terminal Procedures Publications
✔✔Must you accept a SID if assigned one? - ✔✔No. Since they're only graphical, if the
pilot does not have access or does not have equipment to fly the SID, he or she can
notify ATC verbally (less preferred) or when filing the flight plan specify "NO SID".
✔✔How does pilot determine if takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure
procedures are published for an airport? - ✔✔A "triangle T" or "trouble T" (black triangle
with a T inside it) will be placed in notes sections of the instrument procedure chart.
Signifies non-standard take-off minimums.
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS SET A+
✔✔Required tests/inspections of aircraft/equipment for IFR flight - ✔✔A - annual
V - VOR (30 days)
1 - 100 hour
A - altimeter (24 months)
T - transponder (24 months)
E - ELT (12 months)
Pitot/static system (within past 24 months)
✔✔Portable electronic devices on aircraft - ✔✔Not allowed, especially on commercial
operators/carriers or any aircraft operated IFR.
Exceptions: portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers,
or any other portable electronic devices that will not cause interference with NAV/COM.
✔✔Documents on board to be legal for IFR - ✔✔A - airworthiness certificate
R - registration certificate
R - radio station license (if international operations)
O - owner's manual or operating limitations
W - weight and balance data
✔✔How often is GPS waypoint information updated? - ✔✔Every 28 days, and
maintained by National Flight Data Center (NFDC)
✔✔When must pilot file an IFR flight plan? - ✔✔Prior to departure from within or prior to
entering controlled airspace: submit flight plan and receive clearance from ATC if
weather conditions are below VFR minimums. File 30 minutes prior to departure to
preclude delay in receiving departure clearance.
,✔✔When can you cancel IFR flight plan? - ✔✔Any time the flight is operated during
VFR conditions outside of Class A.
Be aware that other procedures may be applicable in area, such as designated TRSA,
Class C, or Class B.
✔✔What type of aircraft equipment determines your "special equipment" suffix when
filing IFR? - ✔✔a) radar beacon transponder
b) DME equipment
c) TACAN-only equipment
d) Area Navigation equipment (RNAV) - LORAN, INS
e) Advanced Area Navigation equipment - Global Positioning System (GPS)/Global
Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)
f) Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) authorization
✔✔Block 7 of flight plan - altitude specified? - ✔✔Initial altitude, make subsequent
requests to controller when in air
✔✔***Alternate Airport Requirements*** - ✔✔1-2-3 rule: Alternate required if from 1
hour before to 1 hour after forecast arrival at destination airport has 2000 foot ceilings
and less than 3 SM visibility. Alternate requirements:
a) If IAP is published for alternate, use those minimums, otherwise 600-2 (600 foot
ceilings, 2 SM visibility) for Precision Approach, and 800-2 for Nonprecision Approach
b) If no IAP has been published, ceiling and visibility minimums are those required for
descent from MEA, approach, and land under basic VFR
✔✔Define "ceiling" - ✔✔Height above Earth's surface (AGL) of lowest cloud layer
defined as obscured, broken, overcast, but not thin or partial.
✔✔What are preferred routes, and where can they be found? - ✔✔Routes in high traffic
areas that ATC designates to- and from- busy airports. Found in A/FD
✔✔What are Enroute Low-Altitude Charts? - ✔✔Provide aeronautical information for
navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000 feet MSL (under Class A). Revised every
56 days.
✔✔What are Enroute High-Altitude Charts? - ✔✔Provide information for navigation
above 18,000 feet MSL. Four-color chart series includes jet route structure; VHF
NAVAIDs with frequency, identification, channel, geographic coordinates; selected
airports; reporting points. Revised every 56 days.
✔✔What are "area charts"? - ✔✔Area charts show congested terminal areas such as
Dallas/FW or Atlanta at a large scale. They are included with subscriptions to any
conterminous US set Low (Full set, East or West sets). Revised every 56 days.
,✔✔Where can information on possible navigational aid limitations be found? -
✔✔NOTAMs as well as A/FDs will contain current limitations
✔✔What are the required reports for equipment malfunction under IFR-controller
airspace? - ✔✔a) Failure of VOR, TACAN, ADF, or low frequency navigation receiver
capability
b) GPS anomalies while using IFR-certified GPS/GNSS receivers
c) Complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability
d) Impairment of air/ground communication capability
e) Loss of any other equipment installed in the aircraft which may impair safety and/or
the ability to operate in IFR
✔✔How can IFR clearance be obtained? - ✔✔a) At airport with ATC tower in operation,
clearance may be received from ground control or specific clearance delivery frequency
b) At airports without a tower or FSS on field, or in outlying area:
- Clearance may be received over radio through remote communication outlet (RCO) or
over telephone
- Clearance delivery frequency is available that is usable at airports within specific area,
say Class B airspace
- If above not available, clearance can be received from ARTCC once airborne as long
as you stay in Class E airspace VFR
Ask the nearest FSS for appropriate means.
✔✔What does "cleared as filed" mean? - ✔✔ATC will issue abbreviated this statement
of IFR clearance based on route of flight as filed in the IFR flight plan
✔✔Which clearance items are given in an abbreviated IFR clearance? - ✔✔C -
Clearance Limit (destination airport or fix)
R - Route (initial heading)
A - Altitude (initial altitude)
F - frequency (departure)
T - transponder (squawk code)
Note: ATC procedures require controller to state the Departure Procedure (DP) within
Route info if applicable as well
✔✔What does "clearance void time" mean? - ✔✔When operating from non-towered
field, this is the time after which the IFR clearance is voided and pilot must report
intentions to ATC (within 30 minutes)
✔✔What does "hold for release" mean when included in IFR clearance? - ✔✔Delays
the aircraft's departure for traffic management reasons. May not depart under IFR
clearance until a release time or additional instructions are provided by ATC
✔✔Minimums necessary for IFR takeoff under 14 CFR Part 91? Under Parts 121, 125,
129, or 135? - ✔✔Part 91: None
, Other Parts (assuming Takeoff Minimums not prescribed for that airport under Part 97):
1 SM visibility for aircraft with 2 engines or less, 1/2 SM for aircraft with 3 or more
engines
✔✔What is "good operating practice" in determining takeoff minimums for IFR flight? -
✔✔Use the minima in the Instrument Approach Procedure for that airport. If none
available, use basic VFR minimums (1000 feet ceilings, 3 miles)
✔✔What are DPs and why are they necessary? - ✔✔Departure Procedures (DPs) are
preplanned IFR procedures that provide obstruction clearances from runway to enroute
airway. Provides obstacle clearance protection and, at busier airports, increases
efficiency by reducing communication and departure delays. Pilots under Part 91 are
strongly encouraged to file and fly a DP at night, during marginal VMC and IMC, when
one is available.
✔✔What are two types of DPs? - ✔✔a) Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) -
textually/graphically,
obstruction clearance via least burdensome route,
No need for ATC clearance unless alternate departure procedure (SID or radar vector)
has been specifically assigned by ATC.
b) Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) -
always graphically,
obstruction clearance and transition,
system enhancement and reduce pilot/controller workload,
ATC clearance must be received prior
✔✔What criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure? -
✔✔Based on:
pilot crossing departure end of runway > 35 ft above that elevation,
climbing to 400 ft above runway before making initial turn
maintaining minimum climb gradient of 200 ft/NM (unless required to level off by
crossing restriction). Gradient may vary based on obstacles.
✔✔Where are DPs located? - ✔✔Listed by airport in "IFR Take-Off Minimums and
Departure Procedures," Section C of the Terminal Procedures Publications
✔✔Must you accept a SID if assigned one? - ✔✔No. Since they're only graphical, if the
pilot does not have access or does not have equipment to fly the SID, he or she can
notify ATC verbally (less preferred) or when filing the flight plan specify "NO SID".
✔✔How does pilot determine if takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure
procedures are published for an airport? - ✔✔A "triangle T" or "trouble T" (black triangle
with a T inside it) will be placed in notes sections of the instrument procedure chart.
Signifies non-standard take-off minimums.
