EPIC AMB 400 | LATEST EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
ANSWERS - UPDATED 2026/2027
Q1. What is the primary client application used to access EpicCare
Ambulatory? CORRECT ANSWER Hyperspace.
Q2. What is the name of Epic's operational database? CORRECT
ANSWER Chronicles.
Q3. What is the name of Epic's reporting database? CORRECT ANSWER
Clarity.
Q4. What does AMB 400 certify proficiency in? CORRECT ANSWER
EpicCare Ambulatory Administration, including system configuration and
build.
Q5. How many questions are typically on the AMB 400 exam? CORRECT
ANSWER Approximately 120 multiple-choice questions.
Q6. What is the typical time limit for the AMB 400 exam? CORRECT
ANSWER 2 hours.
Q7. What is the general passing score for the AMB 400 exam? CORRECT
ANSWER Around 70%.
Q8. What is the main focus of the AMB 400 exam? CORRECT ANSWER
System configuration and build, not just end-user workflow knowledge.
Q9. What tool is used for ad-hoc reporting within Hyperspace? CORRECT
ANSWER Reporting Workbench.
Q10. What visualization tool allows users to drill down into report data?
CORRECT ANSWER SlicerDicer.
Q11. What is the web-based patient portal called? CORRECT ANSWER
MyChart.
Q12. What record stores the master list of procedures in Epic? CORRECT
ANSWER The Epic Procedure (EAP) record.
Q13. What are the three types of items controlled by Configuration?
CORRECT ANSWER Display Items, Summary Items, and Controlled Items.
,Q14. What does the System Definitions activity control? CORRECT
ANSWER System-wide settings and defaults for various Epic modules.
Q15. What is an Epic environment used for training and certification
called? CORRECT ANSWER A training environment or cert environment.
Q16. What activity is used to manage user accounts in Epic? CORRECT
ANSWER User Management or the Users activity.
Q17. What must every Epic user be assigned to gain system access?
CORRECT ANSWER At least one Security Class.
Q18. What is the difference between a user record and a provider record?
CORRECT ANSWER A user record controls login access; a provider
record links to clinical documentation and billing.
Q19. What activity allows administrators to configure system-wide
defaults? CORRECT ANSWER System Definitions.
Q20. What is the purpose of the Epic UserWeb portal? CORRECT
ANSWER It provides documentation, training materials, and resources
for Epic customers.
Q21. What does the term "build" refer to in Epic administration?
CORRECT ANSWER The configuration and customization of system
records, rules, and workflows.
Q22. What is an Activity in Epic? CORRECT ANSWER A functional area
or screen within Hyperspace that users can access.
Q23. What controls which activities a user can open? CORRECT
ANSWER Security Classes and activity-based security settings.
Q24. What is the master file for medications in Epic? CORRECT ANSWER
The Medication Master (MED) record.
Q25. What is the master file for diagnoses in Epic? CORRECT ANSWER
The Problem List master or ICD records.
Q26. What does the term "Hyperspace" refer to? CORRECT ANSWER
The main graphical user interface for Epic applications.
Q27. What is an Epic "template" used for? CORRECT ANSWER To pre-
define schedules, notes, orders, or other reusable clinical content.
, Q28. What is the purpose of the Epic Foundation System? CORRECT
ANSWER It provides the underlying infrastructure and shared records
for all Epic applications.
Q29. What does "In-Basket" refer to in Epic? CORRECT ANSWER The
internal messaging and task management system for users.
Q30. What is the purpose of the Audit Trail in Epic? CORRECT ANSWER
To track changes and access to patient records for compliance and
security.
Section 2: Security, Users & Access (Q31–Q60)
Q31. What is a Security Class in Epic? CORRECT ANSWER A set of
permissions that defines what activities and data a user can access.
Q32. Can a user have multiple Security Classes? CORRECT ANSWER Yes.
Q33. What record links a user to their clinical billing identity? CORRECT
ANSWER The Provider record (SER).
Q34. What is required to create a new user in Epic? CORRECT ANSWER
A user ID, name, and at least one Security Class assignment.
Q35. What happens if a user's Security Class does not include an activity?
CORRECT ANSWER The user cannot access that activity.
Q36. What is the purpose of the User Audit report? CORRECT ANSWER
To review user activity, logins, and access patterns.
Q37. What is a Provider ID used for? CORRECT ANSWER To identify a
provider for documentation, orders, and billing.
Q38. Can a single user be linked to multiple provider records? CORRECT
ANSWER Generally no; one user is linked to one provider record.
Q39. What is the difference between a Super User and a System
Administrator? CORRECT ANSWER A Super User trains end users; a
System Administrator configures build and security.
Q40. What controls access to specific patient records? CORRECT
ANSWER Security Classes combined with patient access rules and break-
the-glass policies.
ANSWERS - UPDATED 2026/2027
Q1. What is the primary client application used to access EpicCare
Ambulatory? CORRECT ANSWER Hyperspace.
Q2. What is the name of Epic's operational database? CORRECT
ANSWER Chronicles.
Q3. What is the name of Epic's reporting database? CORRECT ANSWER
Clarity.
Q4. What does AMB 400 certify proficiency in? CORRECT ANSWER
EpicCare Ambulatory Administration, including system configuration and
build.
Q5. How many questions are typically on the AMB 400 exam? CORRECT
ANSWER Approximately 120 multiple-choice questions.
Q6. What is the typical time limit for the AMB 400 exam? CORRECT
ANSWER 2 hours.
Q7. What is the general passing score for the AMB 400 exam? CORRECT
ANSWER Around 70%.
Q8. What is the main focus of the AMB 400 exam? CORRECT ANSWER
System configuration and build, not just end-user workflow knowledge.
Q9. What tool is used for ad-hoc reporting within Hyperspace? CORRECT
ANSWER Reporting Workbench.
Q10. What visualization tool allows users to drill down into report data?
CORRECT ANSWER SlicerDicer.
Q11. What is the web-based patient portal called? CORRECT ANSWER
MyChart.
Q12. What record stores the master list of procedures in Epic? CORRECT
ANSWER The Epic Procedure (EAP) record.
Q13. What are the three types of items controlled by Configuration?
CORRECT ANSWER Display Items, Summary Items, and Controlled Items.
,Q14. What does the System Definitions activity control? CORRECT
ANSWER System-wide settings and defaults for various Epic modules.
Q15. What is an Epic environment used for training and certification
called? CORRECT ANSWER A training environment or cert environment.
Q16. What activity is used to manage user accounts in Epic? CORRECT
ANSWER User Management or the Users activity.
Q17. What must every Epic user be assigned to gain system access?
CORRECT ANSWER At least one Security Class.
Q18. What is the difference between a user record and a provider record?
CORRECT ANSWER A user record controls login access; a provider
record links to clinical documentation and billing.
Q19. What activity allows administrators to configure system-wide
defaults? CORRECT ANSWER System Definitions.
Q20. What is the purpose of the Epic UserWeb portal? CORRECT
ANSWER It provides documentation, training materials, and resources
for Epic customers.
Q21. What does the term "build" refer to in Epic administration?
CORRECT ANSWER The configuration and customization of system
records, rules, and workflows.
Q22. What is an Activity in Epic? CORRECT ANSWER A functional area
or screen within Hyperspace that users can access.
Q23. What controls which activities a user can open? CORRECT
ANSWER Security Classes and activity-based security settings.
Q24. What is the master file for medications in Epic? CORRECT ANSWER
The Medication Master (MED) record.
Q25. What is the master file for diagnoses in Epic? CORRECT ANSWER
The Problem List master or ICD records.
Q26. What does the term "Hyperspace" refer to? CORRECT ANSWER
The main graphical user interface for Epic applications.
Q27. What is an Epic "template" used for? CORRECT ANSWER To pre-
define schedules, notes, orders, or other reusable clinical content.
, Q28. What is the purpose of the Epic Foundation System? CORRECT
ANSWER It provides the underlying infrastructure and shared records
for all Epic applications.
Q29. What does "In-Basket" refer to in Epic? CORRECT ANSWER The
internal messaging and task management system for users.
Q30. What is the purpose of the Audit Trail in Epic? CORRECT ANSWER
To track changes and access to patient records for compliance and
security.
Section 2: Security, Users & Access (Q31–Q60)
Q31. What is a Security Class in Epic? CORRECT ANSWER A set of
permissions that defines what activities and data a user can access.
Q32. Can a user have multiple Security Classes? CORRECT ANSWER Yes.
Q33. What record links a user to their clinical billing identity? CORRECT
ANSWER The Provider record (SER).
Q34. What is required to create a new user in Epic? CORRECT ANSWER
A user ID, name, and at least one Security Class assignment.
Q35. What happens if a user's Security Class does not include an activity?
CORRECT ANSWER The user cannot access that activity.
Q36. What is the purpose of the User Audit report? CORRECT ANSWER
To review user activity, logins, and access patterns.
Q37. What is a Provider ID used for? CORRECT ANSWER To identify a
provider for documentation, orders, and billing.
Q38. Can a single user be linked to multiple provider records? CORRECT
ANSWER Generally no; one user is linked to one provider record.
Q39. What is the difference between a Super User and a System
Administrator? CORRECT ANSWER A Super User trains end users; a
System Administrator configures build and security.
Q40. What controls access to specific patient records? CORRECT
ANSWER Security Classes combined with patient access rules and break-
the-glass policies.
