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WEST COAST UNIVERSITY NURS 431 –
DISASTER MANAGEMENT AND EMERGENCY
PREPAREDNESS COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE
EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES UPDATED 2026/27 |100%
GUARANTEED PASS
Covers Disaster Triage, Emergency Preparedness, Incident Command
System, Natural Disasters, Bioterrorism, Mass Casualty Incidents,
Chemical/Biological/Radiological Agents, Decontamination, and Role of
the Nurse in Disasters
QUESTION 1
A nurse is triaging patients after a mass casualty incident. Which patient
should receive care first using the START triage system?
A) A patient with a minor laceration who is walking
B) A patient who is apneic after repositioning the airway
C) A patient with a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute and
capillary refill of 4 seconds
D) A patient who is breathing spontaneously with a respiratory rate of 10
breaths per minute
Verified Answer: C
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Rationale: In the START triage system, patients with a respiratory rate
greater than 30 breaths per minute, absent radial pulse (cap refill >2
seconds), or inability to follow commands are triaged as immediate
(red). Patients who are apneic after airway repositioning are triaged as
deceased (black) in mass casualty events.
QUESTION 2
A nurse is preparing for a disaster response. Which phase of the disaster
management cycle involves planning and training?
A) Mitigation
B) Preparedness
C) Response
D) Recovery
Verified Answer: B
Rationale: The preparedness phase involves planning, training, and
education to ensure readiness for a disaster. Mitigation involves reducing
risks, response involves immediate actions during the disaster, and
recovery involves restoring normalcy afterward.
QUESTION 3
A hospital is activating its emergency operations plan. Which role does
the nurse manager assume in the Incident Command System?
A) Incident Commander
B) Operations Section Chief
C) Logistics Section Chief
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D) Planning Section Chief
Verified Answer: B
Rationale: The Operations Section Chief is responsible for managing
tactical operations, including patient care delivery during a disaster. The
Incident Commander has overall authority, Logistics handles supplies,
and Planning develops the action plan.
QUESTION 4
A patient exposed to a nerve agent presents with miosis, muscle
fasciculations, and respiratory distress. Which antidote should the nurse
prepare to administer?
A) Atropine and pralidoxime
B) Naloxone
C) Sodium thiosulfate
D) Deferoxamine
Verified Answer: A
Rationale: Nerve agents (organophosphates) cause cholinergic crisis.
Atropine is administered to block muscarinic effects (miosis,
bradycardia, bronchospasm), and pralidoxime reactivates
acetylcholinesterase.
QUESTION 5
A nurse is educating staff about biological agents. Which agent is
classified as a Category A bioterrorism threat?
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A) Anthrax
B) Tularemia
C) Q fever
D) Ricin
Verified Answer: A
Rationale: Category A bioterrorism agents are those with the highest
priority due to ease of dissemination and high mortality. They include
anthrax, smallpox, plague, botulism, tularemia, and viral hemorrhagic
fevers. Q fever and ricin are Category B agents.
QUESTION 6
A hospital is responding to a chemical spill. Which action should the
nurse take first when a contaminated patient arrives?
A) Assess the patient's vital signs
B) Initiate decontamination
C) Obtain a thorough history
D) Notify the healthcare provider
Verified Answer: B
Rationale: Decontamination is the priority to prevent injury to healthcare
workers and further exposure to the patient. Assessing vital signs and
obtaining a history should occur after decontamination.
QUESTION 7
WEST COAST UNIVERSITY NURS 431 –
DISASTER MANAGEMENT AND EMERGENCY
PREPAREDNESS COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE
EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES UPDATED 2026/27 |100%
GUARANTEED PASS
Covers Disaster Triage, Emergency Preparedness, Incident Command
System, Natural Disasters, Bioterrorism, Mass Casualty Incidents,
Chemical/Biological/Radiological Agents, Decontamination, and Role of
the Nurse in Disasters
QUESTION 1
A nurse is triaging patients after a mass casualty incident. Which patient
should receive care first using the START triage system?
A) A patient with a minor laceration who is walking
B) A patient who is apneic after repositioning the airway
C) A patient with a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute and
capillary refill of 4 seconds
D) A patient who is breathing spontaneously with a respiratory rate of 10
breaths per minute
Verified Answer: C
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Rationale: In the START triage system, patients with a respiratory rate
greater than 30 breaths per minute, absent radial pulse (cap refill >2
seconds), or inability to follow commands are triaged as immediate
(red). Patients who are apneic after airway repositioning are triaged as
deceased (black) in mass casualty events.
QUESTION 2
A nurse is preparing for a disaster response. Which phase of the disaster
management cycle involves planning and training?
A) Mitigation
B) Preparedness
C) Response
D) Recovery
Verified Answer: B
Rationale: The preparedness phase involves planning, training, and
education to ensure readiness for a disaster. Mitigation involves reducing
risks, response involves immediate actions during the disaster, and
recovery involves restoring normalcy afterward.
QUESTION 3
A hospital is activating its emergency operations plan. Which role does
the nurse manager assume in the Incident Command System?
A) Incident Commander
B) Operations Section Chief
C) Logistics Section Chief
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D) Planning Section Chief
Verified Answer: B
Rationale: The Operations Section Chief is responsible for managing
tactical operations, including patient care delivery during a disaster. The
Incident Commander has overall authority, Logistics handles supplies,
and Planning develops the action plan.
QUESTION 4
A patient exposed to a nerve agent presents with miosis, muscle
fasciculations, and respiratory distress. Which antidote should the nurse
prepare to administer?
A) Atropine and pralidoxime
B) Naloxone
C) Sodium thiosulfate
D) Deferoxamine
Verified Answer: A
Rationale: Nerve agents (organophosphates) cause cholinergic crisis.
Atropine is administered to block muscarinic effects (miosis,
bradycardia, bronchospasm), and pralidoxime reactivates
acetylcholinesterase.
QUESTION 5
A nurse is educating staff about biological agents. Which agent is
classified as a Category A bioterrorism threat?
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A) Anthrax
B) Tularemia
C) Q fever
D) Ricin
Verified Answer: A
Rationale: Category A bioterrorism agents are those with the highest
priority due to ease of dissemination and high mortality. They include
anthrax, smallpox, plague, botulism, tularemia, and viral hemorrhagic
fevers. Q fever and ricin are Category B agents.
QUESTION 6
A hospital is responding to a chemical spill. Which action should the
nurse take first when a contaminated patient arrives?
A) Assess the patient's vital signs
B) Initiate decontamination
C) Obtain a thorough history
D) Notify the healthcare provider
Verified Answer: B
Rationale: Decontamination is the priority to prevent injury to healthcare
workers and further exposure to the patient. Assessing vital signs and
obtaining a history should occur after decontamination.
QUESTION 7
