Certified Anesthesiologist Assistant (CAA)
CAA - CERTIFIED ANESTHESIOLOGIST ASSISTANT | VERIFIED EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS - LATEST VERSION 2026 /2027
CERTIFIED ANESTHESIOLOGIST ASSISTANT (CAA)
1. Which ASA physical status classification describes a patient with
severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life?
A. ASA IV
B. ASA II
C. ASA III
D. ASA V
CORRECT ANSWER : A — ASA IV is defined as severe systemic disease
that is a constant threat to life.
2. Under the anesthesia care team model, an Anesthesiologist Assistant
(AA) must practice:
A. Independently without physician oversight
B. Under the direction and supervision of a licensed anesthesiologist
C. Only in outpatient surgery centers
D. Only under supervision of a CRNA
CORRECT ANSWER : B — AAs are trained to work exclusively within an
anesthesia care team, directed by a supervising anesthesiologist.
3. A Mallampati Class III airway view visualizes:
A. Full uvula and tonsillar pillars
B. Soft palate and base of uvula only
C. Soft palate, fauces, uvula, and pillars
D. Only the hard palate
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, Certified Anesthesiologist Assistant (CAA)
CORRECT ANSWER : B — Class III shows the soft palate and base of the
uvula only, predicting a more difficult laryngoscopy.
4. Per ASA fasting guidelines, the minimum fasting time recommended
after clear liquids is:
A. 6 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 2 hours
CORRECT ANSWER : D — ASA guidelines recommend a minimum 2-hour
fast after clear liquids.
5. The STOP-BANG questionnaire is a validated screening tool for:
A. Difficult IV access
B. Malignant hyperthermia susceptibility
C. Latex allergy
D. Obstructive sleep apnea
CORRECT ANSWER : D — STOP-BANG screens for risk factors associated
with obstructive sleep apnea.
6. A functional capacity of 4 METs or greater is best represented by:
A. Sitting quietly in a chair
B. Walking slowly on level ground
C. Climbing a flight of stairs or brisk walking
D. Eating and dressing independently
CORRECT ANSWER : C — Achieving ≥4 METs (e.g., climbing stairs) is
associated with lower perioperative cardiac risk.
7. The most important preoperative lab test for a patient on chronic
warfarin therapy is:
A. Bleeding time
B. D-dimer
C. PTT
D. INR
CORRECT ANSWER : D — INR reflects the extrinsic coagulation pathway
affected by warfarin and guides perioperative management.
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, Certified Anesthesiologist Assistant (CAA)
8. Anesthesia-specific informed consent should be obtained by:
A. The circulating nurse
B. The surgeon only
C. The anesthesia provider performing the anesthetic
D. The preadmission testing clerk
CORRECT ANSWER : C — The provider delivering the anesthetic is
responsible for obtaining anesthesia-specific informed consent.
9. A patient reports a family history of unexplained death during
general anesthesia. This most strongly raises concern for:
A. Malignant hyperthermia susceptibility or pseudocholinesterase
deficiency
B. Type 2 diabetes
C. Asthma
D. Iron deficiency anemia
CORRECT ANSWER : A — A family history of anesthetic death suggests
an inherited condition such as MH susceptibility or atypical
pseudocholinesterase.
10. A healthy, non-smoking patient with minimal alcohol use
undergoing elective surgery is classified as:
A. ASA III
B. ASA I
C. ASA E
D. ASA II
CORRECT ANSWER : B — ASA I describes a normal, healthy patient with
no systemic disease.
11. Context-sensitive half-time refers to the:
A. Time to reach peak effect after a bolus dose
B. Time for plasma concentration to fall by 50% after stopping an infusion
of a given duration
C. Elimination half-life after a single dose
D. Volume of distribution at steady state
CORRECT ANSWER : B — Context-sensitive half-time accounts for
infusion duration when predicting drug offset.
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, Certified Anesthesiologist Assistant (CAA)
12. For a drug with a high hepatic extraction ratio, clearance is
primarily dependent on:
A. Plasma protein binding
B. Hepatic blood flow
C. Renal function
D. Enzyme induction alone
CORRECT ANSWER : B — High-extraction-ratio drugs are flow-limited,
so clearance tracks hepatic blood flow.
13. Hypoalbuminemia has which effect on a highly protein-bound drug?
A. Increases the free (unbound) fraction
B. Has no effect on free fraction
C. Increases total drug clearance only
D. Decreases the free fraction
CORRECT ANSWER : A — Less albumin means less binding capacity,
raising the pharmacologically active free fraction.
14. Zero-order elimination kinetics means:
A. No elimination occurs
B. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time, regardless of
concentration
C. Elimination is directly proportional to concentration
D. A constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time
CORRECT ANSWER : B — Zero-order kinetics (e.g., saturated enzyme
systems) eliminate a fixed amount per unit time.
15. The therapeutic index is best represented by the ratio:
A. TD50/ED50 (or LD50/ED50)
B. Half-life/Vd
C. ED50/LD50
D. Vd/Clearance
CORRECT ANSWER : A — Therapeutic index compares the toxic or lethal
dose to the effective dose; a higher ratio indicates a wider safety margin.
16. Termination of a single induction bolus of propofol is primarily due
to:
A. Pulmonary uptake
Page 4 of 48
CAA - CERTIFIED ANESTHESIOLOGIST ASSISTANT | VERIFIED EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS - LATEST VERSION 2026 /2027
CERTIFIED ANESTHESIOLOGIST ASSISTANT (CAA)
1. Which ASA physical status classification describes a patient with
severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life?
A. ASA IV
B. ASA II
C. ASA III
D. ASA V
CORRECT ANSWER : A — ASA IV is defined as severe systemic disease
that is a constant threat to life.
2. Under the anesthesia care team model, an Anesthesiologist Assistant
(AA) must practice:
A. Independently without physician oversight
B. Under the direction and supervision of a licensed anesthesiologist
C. Only in outpatient surgery centers
D. Only under supervision of a CRNA
CORRECT ANSWER : B — AAs are trained to work exclusively within an
anesthesia care team, directed by a supervising anesthesiologist.
3. A Mallampati Class III airway view visualizes:
A. Full uvula and tonsillar pillars
B. Soft palate and base of uvula only
C. Soft palate, fauces, uvula, and pillars
D. Only the hard palate
Page 1 of 48
, Certified Anesthesiologist Assistant (CAA)
CORRECT ANSWER : B — Class III shows the soft palate and base of the
uvula only, predicting a more difficult laryngoscopy.
4. Per ASA fasting guidelines, the minimum fasting time recommended
after clear liquids is:
A. 6 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 2 hours
CORRECT ANSWER : D — ASA guidelines recommend a minimum 2-hour
fast after clear liquids.
5. The STOP-BANG questionnaire is a validated screening tool for:
A. Difficult IV access
B. Malignant hyperthermia susceptibility
C. Latex allergy
D. Obstructive sleep apnea
CORRECT ANSWER : D — STOP-BANG screens for risk factors associated
with obstructive sleep apnea.
6. A functional capacity of 4 METs or greater is best represented by:
A. Sitting quietly in a chair
B. Walking slowly on level ground
C. Climbing a flight of stairs or brisk walking
D. Eating and dressing independently
CORRECT ANSWER : C — Achieving ≥4 METs (e.g., climbing stairs) is
associated with lower perioperative cardiac risk.
7. The most important preoperative lab test for a patient on chronic
warfarin therapy is:
A. Bleeding time
B. D-dimer
C. PTT
D. INR
CORRECT ANSWER : D — INR reflects the extrinsic coagulation pathway
affected by warfarin and guides perioperative management.
Page 2 of 48
, Certified Anesthesiologist Assistant (CAA)
8. Anesthesia-specific informed consent should be obtained by:
A. The circulating nurse
B. The surgeon only
C. The anesthesia provider performing the anesthetic
D. The preadmission testing clerk
CORRECT ANSWER : C — The provider delivering the anesthetic is
responsible for obtaining anesthesia-specific informed consent.
9. A patient reports a family history of unexplained death during
general anesthesia. This most strongly raises concern for:
A. Malignant hyperthermia susceptibility or pseudocholinesterase
deficiency
B. Type 2 diabetes
C. Asthma
D. Iron deficiency anemia
CORRECT ANSWER : A — A family history of anesthetic death suggests
an inherited condition such as MH susceptibility or atypical
pseudocholinesterase.
10. A healthy, non-smoking patient with minimal alcohol use
undergoing elective surgery is classified as:
A. ASA III
B. ASA I
C. ASA E
D. ASA II
CORRECT ANSWER : B — ASA I describes a normal, healthy patient with
no systemic disease.
11. Context-sensitive half-time refers to the:
A. Time to reach peak effect after a bolus dose
B. Time for plasma concentration to fall by 50% after stopping an infusion
of a given duration
C. Elimination half-life after a single dose
D. Volume of distribution at steady state
CORRECT ANSWER : B — Context-sensitive half-time accounts for
infusion duration when predicting drug offset.
Page 3 of 48
, Certified Anesthesiologist Assistant (CAA)
12. For a drug with a high hepatic extraction ratio, clearance is
primarily dependent on:
A. Plasma protein binding
B. Hepatic blood flow
C. Renal function
D. Enzyme induction alone
CORRECT ANSWER : B — High-extraction-ratio drugs are flow-limited,
so clearance tracks hepatic blood flow.
13. Hypoalbuminemia has which effect on a highly protein-bound drug?
A. Increases the free (unbound) fraction
B. Has no effect on free fraction
C. Increases total drug clearance only
D. Decreases the free fraction
CORRECT ANSWER : A — Less albumin means less binding capacity,
raising the pharmacologically active free fraction.
14. Zero-order elimination kinetics means:
A. No elimination occurs
B. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time, regardless of
concentration
C. Elimination is directly proportional to concentration
D. A constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time
CORRECT ANSWER : B — Zero-order kinetics (e.g., saturated enzyme
systems) eliminate a fixed amount per unit time.
15. The therapeutic index is best represented by the ratio:
A. TD50/ED50 (or LD50/ED50)
B. Half-life/Vd
C. ED50/LD50
D. Vd/Clearance
CORRECT ANSWER : A — Therapeutic index compares the toxic or lethal
dose to the effective dose; a higher ratio indicates a wider safety margin.
16. Termination of a single induction bolus of propofol is primarily due
to:
A. Pulmonary uptake
Page 4 of 48
