Family Nurse Practitioner Certification
Examination (FNP-C) 2026–2027 |
Comprehensive Question Practice Test
with Answers & Rationales| Free Pdf
Access
1. A 58-year-old client with hypertension presents for a routine follow-up.
Which blood pressure reading indicates controlled hypertension according to
current treatment goals for many adults?
A. 128/78 mm Hg
B. 148/92 mm Hg
C. 156/96 mm Hg
D. 162/100 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood pressure of 128/78 mm Hg is generally considered within target range
for many adults receiving treatment for hypertension.
2. A 65-year-old client reports sudden onset of unilateral weakness and
difficulty speaking. What is the nurse practitioner's priority action?
,A. Activate emergency stroke evaluation
B. Schedule a follow-up visit next week
C. Recommend increased fluid intake
D. Obtain a dietary history first
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sudden neurologic deficits suggest an acute stroke and require immediate
evaluation and treatment.
3. Which screening test is recommended for a client with long-standing
diabetes to evaluate kidney function?
A. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio
B. Chest radiograph
C. Colonoscopy
D. Bone density scan
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Urine albumin screening helps detect diabetic nephropathy at an early stage.
4. A client with type 2 diabetes presents with diaphoresis, tremors, and
confusion. What is the priority assessment?
A. Blood glucose level
B. Blood pressure
C. Weight
D. Temperature
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: These findings are consistent with hypoglycemia and require immediate glucose
assessment.
5. Which finding is most concerning in a client with community-acquired
pneumonia?
A. Oxygen saturation of 86%
B. Mild productive cough
C. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
D. Fatigue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Significant hypoxemia requires urgent intervention and further evaluation.
6. A client with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk for:
A. Stroke
B. Appendicitis
C. Asthma
D. Cataracts
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of thrombus formation and embolic stroke.
7. Which laboratory value requires immediate follow-up?
A. Potassium 6.2 mEq/L
B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
, C. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
D. Glucose 98 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.
8. A client presents with chest pain radiating to the left arm and jaw. What
should the nurse practitioner suspect?
A. Acute coronary syndrome
B. Gastroenteritis
C. Cholecystitis
D. Migraine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This presentation is highly suggestive of myocardial ischemia.
9. Which vaccination is routinely recommended annually for most adults?
A. Influenza vaccine
B. Rabies vaccine
C. Yellow fever vaccine
D. BCG vaccine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Annual influenza vaccination is recommended for most individuals.
Examination (FNP-C) 2026–2027 |
Comprehensive Question Practice Test
with Answers & Rationales| Free Pdf
Access
1. A 58-year-old client with hypertension presents for a routine follow-up.
Which blood pressure reading indicates controlled hypertension according to
current treatment goals for many adults?
A. 128/78 mm Hg
B. 148/92 mm Hg
C. 156/96 mm Hg
D. 162/100 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood pressure of 128/78 mm Hg is generally considered within target range
for many adults receiving treatment for hypertension.
2. A 65-year-old client reports sudden onset of unilateral weakness and
difficulty speaking. What is the nurse practitioner's priority action?
,A. Activate emergency stroke evaluation
B. Schedule a follow-up visit next week
C. Recommend increased fluid intake
D. Obtain a dietary history first
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sudden neurologic deficits suggest an acute stroke and require immediate
evaluation and treatment.
3. Which screening test is recommended for a client with long-standing
diabetes to evaluate kidney function?
A. Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio
B. Chest radiograph
C. Colonoscopy
D. Bone density scan
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Urine albumin screening helps detect diabetic nephropathy at an early stage.
4. A client with type 2 diabetes presents with diaphoresis, tremors, and
confusion. What is the priority assessment?
A. Blood glucose level
B. Blood pressure
C. Weight
D. Temperature
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: These findings are consistent with hypoglycemia and require immediate glucose
assessment.
5. Which finding is most concerning in a client with community-acquired
pneumonia?
A. Oxygen saturation of 86%
B. Mild productive cough
C. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
D. Fatigue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Significant hypoxemia requires urgent intervention and further evaluation.
6. A client with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk for:
A. Stroke
B. Appendicitis
C. Asthma
D. Cataracts
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of thrombus formation and embolic stroke.
7. Which laboratory value requires immediate follow-up?
A. Potassium 6.2 mEq/L
B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
, C. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
D. Glucose 98 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.
8. A client presents with chest pain radiating to the left arm and jaw. What
should the nurse practitioner suspect?
A. Acute coronary syndrome
B. Gastroenteritis
C. Cholecystitis
D. Migraine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This presentation is highly suggestive of myocardial ischemia.
9. Which vaccination is routinely recommended annually for most adults?
A. Influenza vaccine
B. Rabies vaccine
C. Yellow fever vaccine
D. BCG vaccine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Annual influenza vaccination is recommended for most individuals.
