NR228/NR 228 Exam 1 V3 | Nutrition, Health &
Wellness Q&A with Rationale | Chamberlain
University
1. A nurse is providing education to a patient regarding the Recommended Dietary Allowance
(RDA). Which of the following statements best describes the RDA?
A. The maximum intake level unlikely to pose a risk of adverse health effects.
B. The intake level estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals.
C. The average daily nutrient intake level sufficient to meet the requirements of nearly all
healthy individuals in a group.
D. An intake level used when an RDA cannot be determined based on insufficient evidence.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is designed to meet the
nutritional needs of 97% to 98% of healthy individuals in a specific life stage and gender
group. It serves as a goal for daily intake to prevent deficiency and promote long-term
health. This metric is derived from the Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) and includes
a safety margin to account for individual variations.
2. When assessing a patient’s nutritional status, the nurse notes the patient primarily
consumes highly processed foods. The nurse should explain that these foods are often high in
which of the following?
A. Phytochemicals and trace minerals
,B. Complex carbohydrates and fiber
C. Essential amino acids and vitamins
D. Sodium and saturated fats
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Processed foods are frequently manufactured with high levels of sodium for
preservation and saturated or trans-fats for texture and shelf stability. These components
contribute to increased risks of hypertension and cardiovascular disease in the general
population. The nurse must educate the patient on reading labels to identify these hidden
additives in convenience foods.
3. A patient asks about the difference between health promotion and disease prevention.
Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. Health promotion consists of strategies to increase well-being, while disease prevention
focuses on avoiding specific illnesses.
B. Disease prevention involves strategies to improve overall well-being and reach optimal
health levels.
C. Health promotion focuses on treating existing illness to prevent complications.
D. They are identical terms used interchangeably in clinical practice.
Correct Answer: A
,Explanation: Health promotion is a proactive process that encourages individuals to
increase control over and improve their health status. In contrast, disease prevention
specifically targets the reduction of risk factors and the avoidance of particular diseases or
injuries. Understanding this distinction allows the nurse to tailor interventions toward
either general wellness or specific risk mitigation.
4. Which of the following is considered a macronutrient that provides 9 calories per gram?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids (Fats)
C. Proteins
D. Alcohol
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Lipids, or fats, are the most energy-dense macronutrient, providing 9
kilocalories per gram of weight. Carbohydrates and proteins provide only 4 kilocalories per
gram, whereas alcohol provides 7 kilocalories per gram but is not considered a nutrient.
Knowing these values is essential for the nurse when assisting patients with calorie
counting and weight management strategies.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about the function of fiber in the diet. Which statement should
the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Fiber is the primary source of glucose for the brain.
B. Insoluble fiber dissolves in water to form a gel-like substance.
, C. Fiber provides the same amount of energy as starch (4 kcal/g).
D. Fiber helps to lower blood cholesterol levels and regulate blood glucose.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Soluble fiber binds with bile acids in the digestive tract, which helps to lower
blood cholesterol levels by promoting its excretion. Additionally, fiber slows the absorption
of sugar, helping to prevent rapid spikes in blood glucose levels after eating. Insoluble fiber
adds bulk to the stool and is primarily responsible for maintaining regular bowel
movements.
6. Which organ is primarily responsible for the chemical digestion of protein using
hydrochloric acid and pepsin?
A. Small Intestine
B. Stomach
C. Mouth
D. Pancreas
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The stomach initiates protein digestion through the secretion of gastric juice
containing hydrochloric acid (HCl) and the enzyme pepsin. The acidic environment
denatures protein structures, making them accessible for enzymatic breakdown. This
phase of digestion is crucial before the chyme moves into the small intestine for further
processing.
Wellness Q&A with Rationale | Chamberlain
University
1. A nurse is providing education to a patient regarding the Recommended Dietary Allowance
(RDA). Which of the following statements best describes the RDA?
A. The maximum intake level unlikely to pose a risk of adverse health effects.
B. The intake level estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals.
C. The average daily nutrient intake level sufficient to meet the requirements of nearly all
healthy individuals in a group.
D. An intake level used when an RDA cannot be determined based on insufficient evidence.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is designed to meet the
nutritional needs of 97% to 98% of healthy individuals in a specific life stage and gender
group. It serves as a goal for daily intake to prevent deficiency and promote long-term
health. This metric is derived from the Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) and includes
a safety margin to account for individual variations.
2. When assessing a patient’s nutritional status, the nurse notes the patient primarily
consumes highly processed foods. The nurse should explain that these foods are often high in
which of the following?
A. Phytochemicals and trace minerals
,B. Complex carbohydrates and fiber
C. Essential amino acids and vitamins
D. Sodium and saturated fats
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Processed foods are frequently manufactured with high levels of sodium for
preservation and saturated or trans-fats for texture and shelf stability. These components
contribute to increased risks of hypertension and cardiovascular disease in the general
population. The nurse must educate the patient on reading labels to identify these hidden
additives in convenience foods.
3. A patient asks about the difference between health promotion and disease prevention.
Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. Health promotion consists of strategies to increase well-being, while disease prevention
focuses on avoiding specific illnesses.
B. Disease prevention involves strategies to improve overall well-being and reach optimal
health levels.
C. Health promotion focuses on treating existing illness to prevent complications.
D. They are identical terms used interchangeably in clinical practice.
Correct Answer: A
,Explanation: Health promotion is a proactive process that encourages individuals to
increase control over and improve their health status. In contrast, disease prevention
specifically targets the reduction of risk factors and the avoidance of particular diseases or
injuries. Understanding this distinction allows the nurse to tailor interventions toward
either general wellness or specific risk mitigation.
4. Which of the following is considered a macronutrient that provides 9 calories per gram?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids (Fats)
C. Proteins
D. Alcohol
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Lipids, or fats, are the most energy-dense macronutrient, providing 9
kilocalories per gram of weight. Carbohydrates and proteins provide only 4 kilocalories per
gram, whereas alcohol provides 7 kilocalories per gram but is not considered a nutrient.
Knowing these values is essential for the nurse when assisting patients with calorie
counting and weight management strategies.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about the function of fiber in the diet. Which statement should
the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Fiber is the primary source of glucose for the brain.
B. Insoluble fiber dissolves in water to form a gel-like substance.
, C. Fiber provides the same amount of energy as starch (4 kcal/g).
D. Fiber helps to lower blood cholesterol levels and regulate blood glucose.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Soluble fiber binds with bile acids in the digestive tract, which helps to lower
blood cholesterol levels by promoting its excretion. Additionally, fiber slows the absorption
of sugar, helping to prevent rapid spikes in blood glucose levels after eating. Insoluble fiber
adds bulk to the stool and is primarily responsible for maintaining regular bowel
movements.
6. Which organ is primarily responsible for the chemical digestion of protein using
hydrochloric acid and pepsin?
A. Small Intestine
B. Stomach
C. Mouth
D. Pancreas
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The stomach initiates protein digestion through the secretion of gastric juice
containing hydrochloric acid (HCl) and the enzyme pepsin. The acidic environment
denatures protein structures, making them accessible for enzymatic breakdown. This
phase of digestion is crucial before the chyme moves into the small intestine for further
processing.