Exam 1 NUR8024/ NUR 2024; Questions and answers - Latest updated 2026.

Exam 1 NUR8024/ NUR 2024; Questions and answers - Latest updated 2026. Which branch of science focuses on the study of how the body processes a drug, specifically looking at absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination? A) Pharmacokinetics B) Pharmacodynamics C) Toxicology D) Pharmacotherapeutics What is the ultimate therapeutic goal when administering a drug? A) 100% bioavailability regardless of the route B) Achieving the desired response with minimal toxicity C) Reaching the maximum effective concentration as quickly as possible D) Ensuring the drug is classified by its chemical structure Which term refers to the undesirable effects of chemicals on living systems? A) Pharmacodynamics B) Side effects C) Adverse drug reactions D) Toxicology When a drug is classified as a "beta-agonist" or "calcium channel antagonist," which classification method is being used? A) Source-based classification B) Pharmacotherapeutic category C) Chemical structure and receptor type D) Legend vs. OTC status How is "Pharmacodynamics" best described? A) What the body does to the drug B) The study of drug sources C) The study of the cost-benefit ratio of treatment D) What the drug does to the body and the clinical response Which physical property allows a drug molecule to cross biological membranes most easily? A) Large molecular weight B) Hydrophilic nature C) Smaller and lipophilic D) High ionization Where are weak acids best absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract? A) Distal ileum B) Proximal duodenum C) Large intestine D) The esophagus Which administration route is characterized by having 100% bioavailability? A) Oral B) Rectal C) Transdermal D) Intravenous (IV) Bioavailability is defined as the fraction of drug that: A) Is bound to plasma proteins B) Is eliminated by the kidneys C) Reaches systemic circulation in a chemically unchanged form D) Is metabolized in the liver during the first pass Which physiological factor would most likely decrease the rate of drug absorption in the gut? A) Sympathetic nervous system input B) Parasympathetic nervous system input C) Increased intestinal surface area D) Emptying the stomach quickly Which process describes a drug leaving the bloodstream and entering the interstitium and intracellular fluids? A) Absorption B) Distribution C) Metabolism D) Elimination What is the clinical significance of a drug having a very large Volume of Distribution (Vd)? A) It will have a shorter duration of action B) It will have a longer half-life C) It is likely highly water-soluble D) It will be cleared by the kidneys more rapidly Why might a dehydrated patient experience drug toxicity at "normal" doses? A) They have less fluid volume, leading to higher plasma and tissue drug concentrations B) Dehydration increases the rate of liver metabolism C) Dehydration increases plasma albumin levels D) Water-soluble drugs are excreted faster in dehydrated states What occurs during "Drug Displacement" when a drug has a narrow therapeutic index? A) The drug becomes less effective B) A small change in drug concentration may lead to a large clinical impact C) The drug is moved into the intracellular space D) The drug's pKa is altered Which plasma protein is the primary site for drug binding and can act as a reservoir for drugs like Warfarin? A) Hemoglobin B) Albumin C) Gamma globulin D) Fibrinogen What is the "First Pass Effect"? A) The initial excretion of drug through the urine B) Metabolism of an oral drug by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation C) The time it takes for a drug to pass through the stomach D) The binding of a drug to its first receptor site Which phase of metabolism involves conjugation to make a drug more water-soluble for excretion? A) Phase I B) Phase II C) Phase III D) Zero-order phase What is the clinical result of taking a drug that "induces" CYP450 enzymes? A) The drug's half-life will increase B) The drug will be metabolized faster, potentially decreasing its effect C) Competitive inhibition of the enzyme occurs D) Drug elimination by the kidneys is blocked How does grapefruit juice cause drug-drug interactions? A) It increases gastric emptying B) It acts as a CYP450 inducer C) It inhibits the CYP3A4 pathway, causing drugs to stay in the body longer D) It neutralizes stomach acid, preventing absorption If a patient is taking a "prodrug," what happens if its metabolism is increased by an inducer? A) The therapeutic effect of the drug increases B) The therapeutic effect of the drug decreases C) The drug remains in its inactive state D) The drug is immediately excreted without being activated Which laboratory value is considered the best overall index of kidney function for drug dosing? A) Serum Creatinine B) Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) C) Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) D) Urine specific gravity In First Order Kinetics, what is true about the rate of elimination? A) A constant amount of drug is removed every hour B) A constant fraction (e.g., 50%) of the drug is metabolized per unit of time C) The rate is independent of the drug's concentration D) Metabolism occurs at a linear, non-exponential rate Which drug is a classic example of Zero Order Kinetics? A) Penicillin B) Ethanol (alcohol) C) Morphine D) Warfarin The Therapeutic Index (TI) of a drug is a measure of its: A) Potency B) Efficacy C) Safety D) Bioavailability What is the "pKa" of a drug? A) The dose at which 50% of patients show an effect B) The rate at which the drug is eliminated C) The pH at which 50% of the drug is ionized D) The ratio of lipid to water solubility Which term describes a drug's ability to produce a maximum cellular response? A) Potency B) Efficacy C) Affinity D) Selectivity What is an "Agonist"? A) A drug that blocks a receptor B) A drug that activates a receptor to produce a biological effect C) A drug that binds to an allosteric site D) A drug that chemically inactivates another drug How does a "Competitive Antagonist" work? A) It binds to a different site than the agonist B) It permanently deactivates the receptor C) It binds to the same receptor site as the agonist, blocking it D) It increases the metabolism of the agonist What happens during "Down Regulation" of receptors? A) Absence of stimulation leads to hypersensitivity B) Constant stimulation leads to decreased responsiveness as receptors move intracellularly C) The number of receptors on the cell surface increases D) The drug's half-life is shortened by receptor destruction If Drug A and Drug B produce a combined effect greater than the sum of their individual effects (1+1=3), this is called: A) An additive effect B) A synergistic effect C) Potentiation D) Refractoriness Which phase of clinical testing involves 1,000–6,000 patients and is typically a randomized, double-blind study? A) Phase I B) Phase II C) Phase III D) Phase IV What is the purpose of the FDA "Orange Book"? A) To list drugs with the highest toxicity B) To determine the therapeutic equivalence of generic drugs C) To track adverse reactions post-marketing D) To provide pediatric weight-based dosing When is a "Black Box Warning" required by the FDA? A) For all new legend drugs B) When a drug has a potential adverse reaction that is extremely significant compared to its benefit C) When a drug is moved from legend to OTC status D) When a drug is known to cause mild side effects like drowsiness Which study design is considered the "Gold Standard" for clinical trials? A) Case-control study B) Randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial C) Post-marketing surveillance D) Animal efficacy testing Why do geriatric patients typically have higher plasma concentrations of water-soluble drugs? A) Increased serum albumin B) Decreased total body water C) Increased lean body mass D) Faster gastric emptying Which formula is used to calculate pediatric doses based specifically on weight? A) Young's Rule B) Clark's Rule C) Rule of 9s D) GFR calculation Why is Aspirin contraindicated in the pediatric population? A) Risk of permanent teeth staining B) Risk of joint and cartilage issues C) Association with Reyes syndrome D) Risk of liver toxicity in children under 2 What is the "start low, go slow" principle in geriatrics designed to prevent? A) Drug nonadherence B) Adverse drug reactions (ADRs) C) Polypharmacy D) Cost-benefit imbalance During which period of pregnancy is the fetus at the highest risk for major organ malformations from teratogens? A) Preimplantation phase B) Embryonic phase (3-8 weeks) C) Fetal phase (9 weeks) D) The third trimester Which FDA pregnancy category indicates that the drug is strictly contraindicated because the risk clearly outweighs any benefit? A) Category A B) Category B C) Category D D) Category X To minimize drug exposure to a nursing infant, a breastfeeding mother should take her medication: A) Immediately before feeding B) 3–4 hours before the next feeding C) Only during the baby's longest sleep cycle D) With a high-fat meal to slow absorption Which topical vehicle is most occlusive and increases skin hydration the most? A) Cream B) Ointment C) Gel D) Lotion Which acne medication has a Black Box Warning for significant teratogenicity and requires use of the iPLEDGE program? A) Retinoic Acid B) Mupirocin C) Isotretinoin (Accutane) D) Topical Metronidazole What is the "Rule of 9s" used for in topical therapy? A) Calculating the pediatric dose by age B) Determining the body surface area to calculate the amount of medication needed C) Measuring the rate of drug penetration through the skin D) Estimating the duration of action for topical steroids What is the primary mechanism of action for drugs used to treat Glaucoma? A) They increase vitamin A levels in the retina B) They decrease production of aqueous humor and increase its outflow C) They cause the iris to become more pigmented D) They act as H1 receptor agonists to reduce inflammation Vitamin A deficiency in the eye can lead to: A) Inability to adapt to the dark (night blindness) B) Excessive tearing and redness C) Improved visual field D) Increased risk of glaucoma What is "Seroconversion"? A) The transfer of antibodies from mother to baby B) The transition from antibody-negative to antibody-positive status C) The indirect protection of unvaccinated people D) The administration of a live attenuated vaccine Which strategy is most effective for ensuring a patient understands their medication instructions? A) Using medical jargon to sound professional B) Providing only written materials C) Using the "Teach-back" method D) Speaking louder to elderly patients What is "Herd Immunity"? A) Immunity gained from a previous infection B) Indirect protection of unvaccinated individuals by reducing transmission in a population C) A requirement for entry into certain countries D) Short-term protection using transferred antibodies Which type of vaccine is generally contraindicated in pregnant and immunocompromised patients? A) Inactivated vaccines B) Live attenuated vaccines C) Tetanus boosters D) Annual flu shots (injected)