.
NUR 635 GCU: ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM
REVIEW QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
ANSWERS
Section 1: Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics (Questions 1-10)
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1. A patient with end-
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stage renal disease (ESRD) is prescribed a medication that is primarily renally excreted. W
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
hich pharmacokinetic parameter is most significantly altered in this patient, requiring a d
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
osage adjustment? sd
A. Bioavailability
sd
B. Volume of distribution (Vd)
sd sd sd sd
C. Clearance (Cl)
sd sd
D. Half-life (t½)
sd sd
Correct Answer: C. Clearance (Cl) – sd sd sd sd sd
In ESRD, renal clearance is drastically reduced, leading to drug accumulation. While half-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
life is also affected (prolonged), clearance is the primary parameter that dictates the need for do
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
se adjustment.
sd
2. A drug is administered as an intravenous bolus and follows first-
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order elimination kinetics. If the drug's half-
sd sd sd sd sd sd
life is 4 hours, how long will it take for the drug concentration to decrease from 100 mg/L
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
to 12.5 mg/L?
sd sd sd
A. 4 hours
sd sd
B. 8 hours
sd sd
C. 12 hours
sd sd
D. 16 hours
sd sd
Correct Answer: C. 12 hours – A decrease from 100 to 50 (1 half-life), 50 to 25 (2 half-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
lives), and 25 to 12.5 (3 half-lives). Total time = 3 half-lives × 4 hours = 12 hours.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
3. A drug has a high first-
sd sd sd sd sd sd
pass effect. Which route of administration would best avoid this effect and achieve the hi
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
ghest systemic bioavailability?sd sd
A. Oral
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B. Subcutaneous
sd
,C. Intravenous (IV)
sd sd
D. Rectal
sd
Correct Answer: C. Intravenous (IV) – IV administration bypasses the first-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
pass effect entirely, delivering 100% of the drug directly into systemic circulation.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
4. A patient is on a medication that is 98% protein-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
bound. Which of the following scenarios would most likely lead to a significant increase i
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
n the free (active) fraction of this drug?
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
A. Coadministration with a drug that competes for protein-binding sites.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
B. A decrease in hepatic blood flow.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
C. An increase in the patient's serum albumin.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
D. Coadministration with a drug that inhibits its metabolism.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: A. Coadministration with a drug that competes for protein-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
binding sites – Displacement from protein-
sd sd sd sd sd
binding sites increases the free fraction, potentially leading to toxicity.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
5. A drug is considered a weak acid (pKa = 4.4). In which part of the body would it be mos
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
t rapidly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract, assuming passive diffusion?
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
A. The stomach (pH = 1.5)
sd sd sd sd sd
B. The duodenum (pH = 6.0)
sd sd sd sd sd
C. The jejunum (pH = 7.0)
sd sd sd sd sd
D. The ileum (pH = 7.5)
sd sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: A. The stomach (pH = 1.5) – Weak acids are predominantly non-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
ionized in acidic environments, which favors passive diffusion across lipid membranes.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
6. A patient is receiving digoxin and develops a severe infection requiring the use of eryth
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
romycin. The patient's digoxin levels rise to toxic levels. This interaction is best explained
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
by:
A. Erythromycin displacing digoxin from protein-binding sites.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
B. Erythromycin decreasing renal clearance of digoxin.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
C. Erythromycin inhibiting P-glycoprotein (P-gp) in the intestine and kidneys.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
D. Erythromycin increasing the volume of distribution of digoxin.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: C. Erythromycin inhibiting P-glycoprotein (P-
sd sd sd sd sd sd
gp) in the intestine and kidneys – Macrolide antibiotics inhibit P-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
gp, reducing the efflux of digoxin from cells, leading to increased absorption and decreased ren
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
al elimination.
sd
7. A patient requires a loading dose of a drug. The loading dose is primarily determined b
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
y which pharmacokinetic parameter?
sd sd sd
A. Clearance
sd
B. Volume of Distribution (Vd)
sd sd sd sd
,C. Half-life
sd
D. Bioavailability (F)
sd sd
Correct Answer: B. Volume of Distribution (Vd) –
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Loading dose = (Target Concentration × Vd) / F. Vd represents the extent of drug distribution a
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
nd determines how much drug is needed to achieve a desired initial concentration.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
8. A drug is classified as a CYP3A4 inducer. Which of the following is a potential conseque
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
nce of this drug's activity?
sd sd sd sd
A. Increased serum levels of a co-administered CYP3A4 substrate.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
B. Decreased serum levels of a co-administered CYP3A4 substrate.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
C. No effect on co-administered drugs.
sd sd sd sd sd
D. Increased risk of toxicity from a co-administered CYP3A4 substrate.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: B. Decreased serum levels of a co-administered CYP3A4 substrate –
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Inducers increase the metabolism of substrates, leading to lower drug concentrations and pote
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
ntial therapeutic failure.
sd sd
9. A medication with a narrow therapeutic index is prescribed to an elderly patient. Which
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
principle of geriatric pharmacology should guide the dosing strategy?
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
A. Start with a standard adult dose and titrate down based on response.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
B. Start low and go slow (initiate at a lower dose and titrate slowly).
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
C. Administer the medication less frequently than recommended.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
D. Avoid the medication due to the high risk of adverse effects.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: B. Start low and go slow (initiate at a lower dose and titrate slowly) –
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
This is a fundamental principle to minimize adverse effects in the elderly due to age-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
related changes in pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics.
sd sd sd sd sd
10. A patient develops a hypersensitivity reaction to a drug. This is an example of which t
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
ype of adverse drug reaction?
sd sd sd sd
A. Type A (Augmented/predictable)
sd sd sd
B. Type B (Bizarre/unpredictable)
sd sd sd
C. Type C (Chronic)
sd sd sd
D. Type D (Delayed)
sd sd sd
Correct Answer: B. Type B (Bizarre/unpredictable) –
sd sd sd sd sd sd
Type B reactions are idiosyncratic, not dose-dependent, and are often related to immune-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
mediated responses. sd
Section 2: Autonomic Nervous System (Questions 11-15)
sd sd sd sd sd sd
11. A patient is receiving a non-selective beta-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
blocker for the management of hypertension. Which adverse effect is most concerning in
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
, a patient with a history of asthma?
sd sd sd sd sd sd
A. Tachycardia
sd
B. Bronchospasm
sd
C. Orthostatic hypotension
sd sd
D. Hyperglycemia
sd
Correct Answer: B. Bronchospasm – Non-selective beta-
sd sd sd sd sd sd
blockers (e.g., propranolol) block both beta-1 (cardiac) and beta-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
2 (bronchial) receptors, leading to bronchoconstriction, which can precipitate an asthma attack.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
12. A patient is administered atropine during a cardiac arrest. The primary therapeutic eff
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
ect of atropine in this setting is due to:
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
A. Increased heart rate by blocking muscarinic receptors.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
B. Decreased heart rate by stimulating nicotinic receptors.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
C. Increased contractility by blocking beta-1 receptors.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
D. Decreased afterload by blocking alpha-1 receptors.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: A. Increased heart rate by blocking muscarinic receptors –
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Atropine is an anticholinergic that blocks muscarinic receptors on the SA node, thereby increasi
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
ng heart rate in bradycardic patients.
sd sd sd sd sd
13. A patient with myasthenia gravis is treated with neostigmine. The mechanism of actio
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
n of neostigmine is:
sd sd sd
A. Activation of nicotinic receptors.
sd sd sd sd
B. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase.
sd sd sd
C. Blockade of muscarinic receptors.
sd sd sd sd
D. Stimulation of acetylcholine release.
sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: B. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase –
sd sd sd sd sd sd
Neostigmine is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that increases the concentration of ac
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
etylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, improving muscle strength.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
14. A patient is in the intensive care unit and is on a norepinephrine drip for septic shock.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
The primary mechanism of action of norepinephrine is:
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
A. Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors causing vasoconstriction.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
B. Stimulation of beta-2 receptors causing vasodilation.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
C. Stimulation of dopamine receptors causing renal vasodilation.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
D. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase causing increased contractility.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: A. Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors causing vasoconstriction –
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Norepinephrine is a potent alpha-
sd sd sd sd sd
1 agonist used as a vasopressor to increase systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
15. A patient complains of dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation after starting a ne
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
w medication for overactive bladder. Which medication is most likely responsible?
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
NUR 635 GCU: ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM
REVIEW QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
ANSWERS
Section 1: Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics (Questions 1-10)
sd sd sd sd sd sd
1. A patient with end-
sd sd sd sd
stage renal disease (ESRD) is prescribed a medication that is primarily renally excreted. W
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
hich pharmacokinetic parameter is most significantly altered in this patient, requiring a d
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
osage adjustment? sd
A. Bioavailability
sd
B. Volume of distribution (Vd)
sd sd sd sd
C. Clearance (Cl)
sd sd
D. Half-life (t½)
sd sd
Correct Answer: C. Clearance (Cl) – sd sd sd sd sd
In ESRD, renal clearance is drastically reduced, leading to drug accumulation. While half-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
life is also affected (prolonged), clearance is the primary parameter that dictates the need for do
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
se adjustment.
sd
2. A drug is administered as an intravenous bolus and follows first-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
order elimination kinetics. If the drug's half-
sd sd sd sd sd sd
life is 4 hours, how long will it take for the drug concentration to decrease from 100 mg/L
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
to 12.5 mg/L?
sd sd sd
A. 4 hours
sd sd
B. 8 hours
sd sd
C. 12 hours
sd sd
D. 16 hours
sd sd
Correct Answer: C. 12 hours – A decrease from 100 to 50 (1 half-life), 50 to 25 (2 half-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
lives), and 25 to 12.5 (3 half-lives). Total time = 3 half-lives × 4 hours = 12 hours.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
3. A drug has a high first-
sd sd sd sd sd sd
pass effect. Which route of administration would best avoid this effect and achieve the hi
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
ghest systemic bioavailability?sd sd
A. Oral
sd
B. Subcutaneous
sd
,C. Intravenous (IV)
sd sd
D. Rectal
sd
Correct Answer: C. Intravenous (IV) – IV administration bypasses the first-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
pass effect entirely, delivering 100% of the drug directly into systemic circulation.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
4. A patient is on a medication that is 98% protein-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
bound. Which of the following scenarios would most likely lead to a significant increase i
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
n the free (active) fraction of this drug?
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
A. Coadministration with a drug that competes for protein-binding sites.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
B. A decrease in hepatic blood flow.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
C. An increase in the patient's serum albumin.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
D. Coadministration with a drug that inhibits its metabolism.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: A. Coadministration with a drug that competes for protein-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
binding sites – Displacement from protein-
sd sd sd sd sd
binding sites increases the free fraction, potentially leading to toxicity.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
5. A drug is considered a weak acid (pKa = 4.4). In which part of the body would it be mos
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
t rapidly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract, assuming passive diffusion?
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
A. The stomach (pH = 1.5)
sd sd sd sd sd
B. The duodenum (pH = 6.0)
sd sd sd sd sd
C. The jejunum (pH = 7.0)
sd sd sd sd sd
D. The ileum (pH = 7.5)
sd sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: A. The stomach (pH = 1.5) – Weak acids are predominantly non-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
ionized in acidic environments, which favors passive diffusion across lipid membranes.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
6. A patient is receiving digoxin and develops a severe infection requiring the use of eryth
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
romycin. The patient's digoxin levels rise to toxic levels. This interaction is best explained
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
by:
A. Erythromycin displacing digoxin from protein-binding sites.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
B. Erythromycin decreasing renal clearance of digoxin.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
C. Erythromycin inhibiting P-glycoprotein (P-gp) in the intestine and kidneys.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
D. Erythromycin increasing the volume of distribution of digoxin.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: C. Erythromycin inhibiting P-glycoprotein (P-
sd sd sd sd sd sd
gp) in the intestine and kidneys – Macrolide antibiotics inhibit P-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
gp, reducing the efflux of digoxin from cells, leading to increased absorption and decreased ren
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
al elimination.
sd
7. A patient requires a loading dose of a drug. The loading dose is primarily determined b
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
y which pharmacokinetic parameter?
sd sd sd
A. Clearance
sd
B. Volume of Distribution (Vd)
sd sd sd sd
,C. Half-life
sd
D. Bioavailability (F)
sd sd
Correct Answer: B. Volume of Distribution (Vd) –
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Loading dose = (Target Concentration × Vd) / F. Vd represents the extent of drug distribution a
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
nd determines how much drug is needed to achieve a desired initial concentration.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
8. A drug is classified as a CYP3A4 inducer. Which of the following is a potential conseque
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
nce of this drug's activity?
sd sd sd sd
A. Increased serum levels of a co-administered CYP3A4 substrate.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
B. Decreased serum levels of a co-administered CYP3A4 substrate.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
C. No effect on co-administered drugs.
sd sd sd sd sd
D. Increased risk of toxicity from a co-administered CYP3A4 substrate.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: B. Decreased serum levels of a co-administered CYP3A4 substrate –
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Inducers increase the metabolism of substrates, leading to lower drug concentrations and pote
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
ntial therapeutic failure.
sd sd
9. A medication with a narrow therapeutic index is prescribed to an elderly patient. Which
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
principle of geriatric pharmacology should guide the dosing strategy?
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
A. Start with a standard adult dose and titrate down based on response.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
B. Start low and go slow (initiate at a lower dose and titrate slowly).
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
C. Administer the medication less frequently than recommended.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
D. Avoid the medication due to the high risk of adverse effects.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: B. Start low and go slow (initiate at a lower dose and titrate slowly) –
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
This is a fundamental principle to minimize adverse effects in the elderly due to age-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
related changes in pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics.
sd sd sd sd sd
10. A patient develops a hypersensitivity reaction to a drug. This is an example of which t
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
ype of adverse drug reaction?
sd sd sd sd
A. Type A (Augmented/predictable)
sd sd sd
B. Type B (Bizarre/unpredictable)
sd sd sd
C. Type C (Chronic)
sd sd sd
D. Type D (Delayed)
sd sd sd
Correct Answer: B. Type B (Bizarre/unpredictable) –
sd sd sd sd sd sd
Type B reactions are idiosyncratic, not dose-dependent, and are often related to immune-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
mediated responses. sd
Section 2: Autonomic Nervous System (Questions 11-15)
sd sd sd sd sd sd
11. A patient is receiving a non-selective beta-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
blocker for the management of hypertension. Which adverse effect is most concerning in
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
, a patient with a history of asthma?
sd sd sd sd sd sd
A. Tachycardia
sd
B. Bronchospasm
sd
C. Orthostatic hypotension
sd sd
D. Hyperglycemia
sd
Correct Answer: B. Bronchospasm – Non-selective beta-
sd sd sd sd sd sd
blockers (e.g., propranolol) block both beta-1 (cardiac) and beta-
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
2 (bronchial) receptors, leading to bronchoconstriction, which can precipitate an asthma attack.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
12. A patient is administered atropine during a cardiac arrest. The primary therapeutic eff
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
ect of atropine in this setting is due to:
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
A. Increased heart rate by blocking muscarinic receptors.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
B. Decreased heart rate by stimulating nicotinic receptors.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
C. Increased contractility by blocking beta-1 receptors.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
D. Decreased afterload by blocking alpha-1 receptors.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: A. Increased heart rate by blocking muscarinic receptors –
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Atropine is an anticholinergic that blocks muscarinic receptors on the SA node, thereby increasi
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
ng heart rate in bradycardic patients.
sd sd sd sd sd
13. A patient with myasthenia gravis is treated with neostigmine. The mechanism of actio
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
n of neostigmine is:
sd sd sd
A. Activation of nicotinic receptors.
sd sd sd sd
B. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase.
sd sd sd
C. Blockade of muscarinic receptors.
sd sd sd sd
D. Stimulation of acetylcholine release.
sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: B. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase –
sd sd sd sd sd sd
Neostigmine is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that increases the concentration of ac
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
etylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, improving muscle strength.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
14. A patient is in the intensive care unit and is on a norepinephrine drip for septic shock.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
The primary mechanism of action of norepinephrine is:
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
A. Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors causing vasoconstriction.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
B. Stimulation of beta-2 receptors causing vasodilation.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
C. Stimulation of dopamine receptors causing renal vasodilation.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
D. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase causing increased contractility.
sd sd sd sd sd sd
Correct Answer: A. Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors causing vasoconstriction –
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
Norepinephrine is a potent alpha-
sd sd sd sd sd
1 agonist used as a vasopressor to increase systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure.
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
15. A patient complains of dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation after starting a ne
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
w medication for overactive bladder. Which medication is most likely responsible?
sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd sd
