Virginia Physical Therapist Assistant
Licensure Exam Practice Questions And
Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationale 2026 Q&A| Instant Download
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1. A physical therapist assistant (PTA) is treating a patient recovering from
total knee arthroplasty. Which intervention is MOST appropriate
during the early postoperative phase to improve mobility while
minimizing complications?
A. High-resistance open-chain knee extensions
B. Aggressive joint mobilization beyond pain tolerance
C. Ambulation training with an assistive device and ROM exercises
D. Plyometric training
C. Ambulation training with an assistive device and ROM exercises
Rationale: Early rehabilitation after knee arthroplasty emphasizes safe
mobility, restoration of range of motion, prevention of complications, and
gradual strengthening. High-impact and aggressive interventions are
inappropriate during the initial phase.
2. Which gait deviation is MOST commonly associated with weakness of
the gluteus medius muscle?
,A. Steppage gait
B. Trendelenburg gait
C. Ataxic gait
D. Festinating gait
B. Trendelenburg gait
Rationale: Weakness of the gluteus medius causes pelvic drop on the
contralateral side during stance, resulting in a Trendelenburg gait pattern.
3. A patient presents with foot drop caused by common peroneal nerve
injury. Which gait deviation would the PTA MOST likely observe?
A. Antalgic gait
B. Scissoring gait
C. Steppage gait
D. Waddling gait
C. Steppage gait
Rationale: Foot drop prevents adequate dorsiflexion during swing phase,
causing excessive hip and knee flexion to clear the foot from the ground.
4. During transfer training, which action BEST promotes patient safety?
A. Lock wheelchair brakes before transfer
B. Allow the patient to transfer independently without instruction
C. Pull on the patient's affected arm
D. Position the wheelchair far from the transfer surface
A. Lock wheelchair brakes before transfer
Rationale: Locking wheelchair brakes prevents unwanted movement and is
a fundamental safety precaution during transfers.
5. Which vital sign finding requires IMMEDIATE communication to the
supervising physical therapist?
,A. Resting heart rate of 72 bpm
B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg
C. Oxygen saturation of 82% at rest
D. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
C. Oxygen saturation of 82% at rest
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 82% indicates significant hypoxemia
and requires prompt medical attention and therapist notification.
6. A patient reports dizziness upon standing. Which condition is MOST
likely responsible?
A. Hypertension
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Tachycardia
D. Hyperglycemia
B. Orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension occurs when blood pressure drops
significantly upon standing, often causing dizziness and lightheadedness.
7. Which assistive device provides the GREATEST level of stability during
ambulation?
A. Single-point cane
B. Quad cane
C. Crutches
D. Standard walker
D. Standard walker
Rationale: A standard walker offers the widest base of support and
provides greater stability than canes or crutches.
, 8. Which muscle is the PRIME mover for shoulder abduction from 15 to
90 degrees?
A. Supraspinatus
B. Deltoid
C. Teres major
D. Latissimus dorsi
B. Deltoid
Rationale: The deltoid is primarily responsible for shoulder abduction after
the supraspinatus initiates the movement.
9. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is
experiencing dyspnea. Which breathing technique is MOST beneficial?
A. Breath holding
B. Rapid shallow breathing
C. Pursed-lip breathing
D. Valsalva maneuver
C. Pursed-lip breathing
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing improves expiratory airflow, decreases air
trapping, and reduces shortness of breath in patients with COPD.
10. Which precaution is MOST important when using a gait belt?
A. Place it over a painful incision
B. Secure it snugly around the waist
C. Hold the patient's clothing instead
D. Position it around the neck
B. Secure it snugly around the waist
Rationale: A properly secured gait belt improves control and safety during
mobility activities.
Licensure Exam Practice Questions And
Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationale 2026 Q&A| Instant Download
1. A physical therapist assistant (PTA) is treating a patient recovering from
total knee arthroplasty. Which intervention is MOST appropriate
during the early postoperative phase to improve mobility while
minimizing complications?
A. High-resistance open-chain knee extensions
B. Aggressive joint mobilization beyond pain tolerance
C. Ambulation training with an assistive device and ROM exercises
D. Plyometric training
C. Ambulation training with an assistive device and ROM exercises
Rationale: Early rehabilitation after knee arthroplasty emphasizes safe
mobility, restoration of range of motion, prevention of complications, and
gradual strengthening. High-impact and aggressive interventions are
inappropriate during the initial phase.
2. Which gait deviation is MOST commonly associated with weakness of
the gluteus medius muscle?
,A. Steppage gait
B. Trendelenburg gait
C. Ataxic gait
D. Festinating gait
B. Trendelenburg gait
Rationale: Weakness of the gluteus medius causes pelvic drop on the
contralateral side during stance, resulting in a Trendelenburg gait pattern.
3. A patient presents with foot drop caused by common peroneal nerve
injury. Which gait deviation would the PTA MOST likely observe?
A. Antalgic gait
B. Scissoring gait
C. Steppage gait
D. Waddling gait
C. Steppage gait
Rationale: Foot drop prevents adequate dorsiflexion during swing phase,
causing excessive hip and knee flexion to clear the foot from the ground.
4. During transfer training, which action BEST promotes patient safety?
A. Lock wheelchair brakes before transfer
B. Allow the patient to transfer independently without instruction
C. Pull on the patient's affected arm
D. Position the wheelchair far from the transfer surface
A. Lock wheelchair brakes before transfer
Rationale: Locking wheelchair brakes prevents unwanted movement and is
a fundamental safety precaution during transfers.
5. Which vital sign finding requires IMMEDIATE communication to the
supervising physical therapist?
,A. Resting heart rate of 72 bpm
B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg
C. Oxygen saturation of 82% at rest
D. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
C. Oxygen saturation of 82% at rest
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 82% indicates significant hypoxemia
and requires prompt medical attention and therapist notification.
6. A patient reports dizziness upon standing. Which condition is MOST
likely responsible?
A. Hypertension
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Tachycardia
D. Hyperglycemia
B. Orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension occurs when blood pressure drops
significantly upon standing, often causing dizziness and lightheadedness.
7. Which assistive device provides the GREATEST level of stability during
ambulation?
A. Single-point cane
B. Quad cane
C. Crutches
D. Standard walker
D. Standard walker
Rationale: A standard walker offers the widest base of support and
provides greater stability than canes or crutches.
, 8. Which muscle is the PRIME mover for shoulder abduction from 15 to
90 degrees?
A. Supraspinatus
B. Deltoid
C. Teres major
D. Latissimus dorsi
B. Deltoid
Rationale: The deltoid is primarily responsible for shoulder abduction after
the supraspinatus initiates the movement.
9. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is
experiencing dyspnea. Which breathing technique is MOST beneficial?
A. Breath holding
B. Rapid shallow breathing
C. Pursed-lip breathing
D. Valsalva maneuver
C. Pursed-lip breathing
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing improves expiratory airflow, decreases air
trapping, and reduces shortness of breath in patients with COPD.
10. Which precaution is MOST important when using a gait belt?
A. Place it over a painful incision
B. Secure it snugly around the waist
C. Hold the patient's clothing instead
D. Position it around the neck
B. Secure it snugly around the waist
Rationale: A properly secured gait belt improves control and safety during
mobility activities.
